Patient Data
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The nurse recognizes that
The Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"C","dropdown-group-2":"C","dropdown-group-3":"A"}
Rationale:
• Temperature: The client’s temperature is 101.2° F (38.4° C), indicating fever. This is significant because fever in a postoperative adult, especially one who is confused and has a recent knee replacement, may suggest infection or sepsis. Monitoring temperature trends helps identify worsening infection and guides timely interventions such as cultures or antibiotics.
• Heart rate: The client’s heart rate is 126 beats per minute, which is tachycardic. Elevated heart rate can indicate systemic response to infection, dehydration, or stress. In combination with fever and confusion, tachycardia may signal early sepsis or hemodynamic instability. Continuous assessment of heart rate allows the nurse to evaluate the client’s cardiovascular status and response to interventions.
• Respirations: Tachypnea (respirations > 20) is a sensitive early indicator of physiological distress and is one of the criteria used in the qSOFA (quick Sepsis-related Organ Failure Assessment) score to identify clients at risk for poor outcomes.
• Oxygenation: While at the lower limit of normal, an oxygen saturation of 94% is generally considered acceptable for an adult without chronic lung disease and does not require immediate intervention compared to the fever and tachycardia.
• Blood pressure: The blood pressure reading of 118/74 mm Hg is within normal limits and does not currently indicate hypotension or hypertension. While ongoing monitoring is necessary, it is not an urgent concern in this scenario. The combination of fever, tachycardia, and tachypnea takes priority for follow-up.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Rationale:
A. Breath sounds: Lung assessment is important during fluid resuscitation to monitor for fluid overload, especially in older adults or those with cardiac compromise. However, breath sounds do not determine whether potassium administration is safe. Potassium-related complications are not identified through respiratory assessment.
B. Blood pressure: Blood pressure reflects volume status and response to fluid therapy in DKA. Although hypotension supports the need for isotonic fluids, it does not assess renal ability to excrete potassium. Potassium administration decisions must be based on kidney function rather than hemodynamics alone.
C. Skin turgor: Skin turgor provides information about dehydration, which is common in DKA due to osmotic diuresis. While useful for overall assessment, it does not indicate renal perfusion or potassium excretion capacity. It is not sufficient to guide safe potassium replacement.
D. Urinary output: Adequate urine output confirms renal perfusion and the ability to excrete potassium. Potassium chloride must not be administered unless urine output is established, as impaired excretion can lead to life-threatening hyperkalemia. This assessment is critical before initiating potassium-containing IV fluids.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Rationale:
A. Bounding erratic pulse: A bounding pulse indicates strong cardiac output, which is inconsistent with ventricular fibrillation, where the ventricles fail to pump effectively.
B. No palpable pulse: Ventricular fibrillation causes chaotic ventricular contractions, preventing effective cardiac output. As a result, the client will have no palpable pulse and will be unresponsive, making this the expected and urgent finding.
C. Thready irregular pulse: A thready, weak, or irregular pulse may occur in severe hypotension or arrhythmias, but VF typically produces no pulse at all due to lack of coordinated ventricular contraction.
D. Regularly irregular pulse: A regularly irregular pulse suggests atrial arrhythmias or other conduction abnormalities but does not correspond to the chaotic, ineffective contractions seen in VF.
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