Patients receiving mechanical ventilation should have a formal assessment of readiness for weaning. Which of the following are essential assessments before extubation? Select all that apply.
Stable, intact respiratory drive and ability to initiate spontaneous respirations.
Heart rate of 190 bpm.
Respiratory rate of 30 breaths per minute.
Hemodynamically stable.
Difficult to arouse and not following commands.
Reversal of underlying cause or condition.
Correct Answer : A,D,F
Choice A rationale
A stable and intact respiratory drive is a mandatory physiological requirement for extubation. The patient must be able to initiate their own breaths and maintain adequate minute ventilation without the assistance of the mechanical ventilator. This ensures that once the artificial airway is removed, the patient can sustain gas exchange and acid base balance. Assessing spontaneous breathing trials helps confirm that the respiratory muscles are strong enough to overcome the resistance of the upper airway.
Choice B rationale
A heart rate of 190 bpm represents extreme sinus tachycardia or a tachyarrhythmia, indicating significant physiological stress, pain, or hemodynamic instability. Normal adult heart rates should range between 60 to 100 bpm. Attempting to extubate a patient with such a high heart rate would likely lead to cardiovascular collapse or respiratory failure. The sympathetic nervous system is overactive, and the patient's myocardial oxygen demand is too high to safely tolerate the work of spontaneous breathing.
Choice C rationale
A respiratory rate of 30 breaths per minute is elevated, often indicating tachypnea and increased work of breathing. Normal respiratory rates are typically 12 to 20 breaths per minute. A rate of 30 suggests the patient may be struggling to maintain adequate tidal volumes or is experiencing respiratory distress. Weaning and extubation are generally deferred if the rate is consistently high, as it serves as a predictor for post extubation fatigue and the potential need for reintubation.
Choice D rationale
Hemodynamic stability is essential, meaning the patient should have a stable blood pressure and heart rate, ideally without significant vasopressor support. A mean arterial pressure of ≥65 mmHg is generally targeted. If a patient is hemodynamically unstable, the additional metabolic demand of breathing on their own could exacerbate heart failure or shock. Stability ensures that the cardiovascular system can support the increased oxygen consumption required when mechanical ventilatory support is withdrawn from the patient.
Choice E rationale
Patients must be awake, alert, and able to follow commands to protect their own airway after extubation. Being difficult to arouse or unable to follow instructions suggests that the patient cannot cough effectively or clear secretions, posing a high risk for aspiration and airway obstruction. Neurological readiness is as critical as pulmonary readiness. A Glasgow Coma Scale score of ≥8 is often used as a benchmark for considering the safety of removing an endotracheal tube.
Choice F rationale
The primary reason the patient required mechanical ventilation must be resolved or significantly improved before extubation is considered. For example, if the patient had pneumonia, the infection should be controlled and inflammatory markers decreasing. If the underlying cause is still present, the patient will likely fail a spontaneous breathing trial. Reversal of the initial pathology ensures that the patient has the physiological reserve to maintain independent ventilation over the long term without returning to failure.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice C rationale
Asystole, or ventricular standstill, must be confirmed in at least two different leads to rule out fine ventricular fibrillation or technical errors like a loose lead. Treating "false" asystole can delay life-saving defibrillation if the patient is actually in a shockable rhythm. Assessment is the first step in the nursing process. Verifying the rhythm and checking the patient's pulse ensures that the clinical intervention matches the true physiological state of the patient.
Choice A rationale
Epinephrine is the primary medication used during the resuscitation of a patient in asystole according to ACLS guidelines. It works by causing peripheral vasoconstriction and increasing coronary perfusion pressure. However, the nurse should never administer medication based on a monitor rhythm alone without first assessing the patient and confirming the rhythm in multiple leads. Once confirmed and CPR is initiated, epinephrine 1 mg is given every 3 to 5 minutes during the arrest.
Choice B rationale
Intubation is an important part of advanced airway management during cardiac arrest to ensure adequate oxygenation and protection against aspiration. While it is a component of the ACLS algorithm, it is not the initial action. The nurse must first verify the rhythm and begin high-quality chest compressions. Airway management often occurs simultaneously with or after the initiation of CPR and the confirmation of the cardiac arrest rhythm to maximize perfusion.
Choice D rationale
Atropine was previously included in the asystole algorithm to treat potential vagal discharge, but it is no longer recommended by the American Heart Association for asystole or pulseless electrical activity. Current protocols focus on high-quality CPR and early epinephrine administration. Administering atropine would be an outdated practice and does not address the primary need for assessment and perfusion in a patient who has no detectable electrical activity or mechanical pulse.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Shortness of breath in a patient scheduled for furosemide suggests acute fluid overload or pulmonary edema, which is a life-threatening condition requiring immediate intervention. Furosemide is a potent loop diuretic that reduces preload by increasing renal excretion of water and sodium. Rapid administration helps alleviate respiratory distress by decreasing pulmonary vascular congestion. In the triage hierarchy, respiratory stability always takes precedence over pain management or non-emergent cardiac rate control.
Choice B rationale
Diphenhydramine is an antihistamine used to treat allergic reactions or pruritus. While itching is uncomfortable, it is not a physiological priority compared to a patient experiencing respiratory compromise. Unless the itching is accompanied by signs of anaphylaxis, such as airway swelling or hypotension, this medication can be safely delayed until more urgent patient needs are met. This choice represents a comfort measure rather than a life-saving respiratory intervention for the nurse.
Choice C rationale
Morphine is an opioid analgesic indicated for pain management. While managing pain is a core nursing responsibility, it falls below the airway, breathing, and circulation (ABC) priority framework. Pain is subjective and, although distressing, does not pose the same immediate risk of mortality as acute shortness of breath. The nurse must first ensure the patient in choice A can breathe adequately before addressing the moderate pain levels of this patient.
Choice D rationale
Digoxin is an inotropic agent used to control the ventricular rate in atrial fibrillation and improve cardiac contractility. While important for long-term hemodynamic stability, it does not typically require the same immediate "stat" administration as a diuretic for a patient currently struggling to breathe. If the patient is hemodynamically stable, the scheduled dose can follow the administration of the furosemide. Priority is given to the most unstable patient based on current symptoms.
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