Prepidil (prostaglandin gel) has been ordered for a pregnant woman at 42 weeks gestation.
The nurse recognizes that this medication will be administered to:
Stimulate the amniotic membranes to rupture.
Increase amniotic fluid volume.
Enhance uteroplacental perfusion in an aging placenta.
Ripen the cervix in preparation for labor induction.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale
Prostaglandin gels, like Prepidil, primarily function by modifying the cervical tissue, not by directly stimulating the amniotic membranes to rupture. Amniotomy, the artificial rupture of membranes, is a separate procedure often performed once the cervix is favorable, but it is not the direct effect of prostaglandin administration. This medication's mechanism is focused on tissue changes to prepare the cervix.
Choice B rationale
Prostaglandin gels do not have a direct mechanism of action to increase amniotic fluid volume. Amniotic fluid volume is primarily regulated by fetal renal function, swallowing, and placental exchange. The purpose of this medication is to facilitate cervical ripening, which is a prerequisite for labor induction, not to alter the fluid environment surrounding the fetus.
Choice C rationale
Prostaglandins do not enhance uteroplacental perfusion. This medication's primary pharmacological effect is localized to the cervix, where it causes cervical softening and effacement by breaking down collagen fibers and increasing water content. Uteroplacental perfusion is a complex circulatory process that ensures adequate oxygen and nutrient exchange, and it's not the target of this drug.
Choice D rationale
Prepidil, which contains dinoprostone, is a prostaglandin E2 analog. Its primary action is to promote cervical ripening by stimulating the breakdown of collagen and increasing the water content of the cervix. This leads to cervical softening, effacement, and dilation, making the cervix more favorable for subsequent induction with oxytocin. The goal is to prepare the cervix for the mechanical forces of labor.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","D"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Suprapubic pressure involves applying downward pressure just above the pubic bone on the mother's abdomen. This maneuver is used to dislodge the anterior fetal shoulder, which is wedged behind the symphysis pubis. The pressure helps to adduct the fetal shoulder, reducing its diameter and allowing it to pass beneath the pubic bone.
Choice B rationale
MacBeth's maneuver is not a recognized obstetric maneuver for resolving shoulder dystocia. Recognized techniques for this emergency include McRoberts maneuver, suprapubic pressure, and Gaskin's maneuver. The lack of a scientific basis or formal obstetric recognition makes this a non-viable option for clinical practice.
Choice C rationale
Fundal pressure, or applying pressure to the top of the uterus, is contraindicated in cases of shoulder dystocia. This action can further wedge the fetal shoulder against the symphysis pubis, increasing the risk of fetal injury, such as a brachial plexus injury, or causing uterine rupture. It is a dangerous and ineffective maneuver.
Choice D rationale
McRoberts maneuver is a first-line intervention for shoulder dystocia. It involves hyperflexing the mother's hips and bringing her thighs toward her abdomen. This position straightens the sacrum relative to the lumbar spine, which rotates the symphysis pubis cephalad, widening the pelvic inlet and allowing the anterior shoulder to pass more easily.
Correct Answer is E
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Preeclampsia is a hypertensive disorder of pregnancy that can lead to uteroplacental insufficiency. This condition would most likely cause late decelerations in the fetal heart tracing, as it results in decreased blood flow to the placenta and an inability to compensate during contractions. The tracing is not available, but the choice is being rationalized based on the most likely cause.
Choice B rationale
Placental abruption is the premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall. This can lead to a variety of fetal heart tracing abnormalities, including severe variable decelerations, late decelerations, or a sinusoidal pattern, often accompanied by uterine hyperactivity. The resulting fetal distress is due to decreased placental surface area for gas exchange.
Choice C rationale
Breech positioning refers to a fetus presenting buttocks or feet first. While it can complicate labor and delivery, it is not a direct cause of a specific fetal heart rate pattern. Fetal heart rate changes in a breech presentation are typically related to cord prolapse or compression during labor, not the position itself.
Choice D rationale
Hypotension in the mother can lead to decreased placental perfusion, as seen with epidural anesthesia. This can cause late decelerations in the fetal heart rate tracing due to uteroplacental insufficiency. It is a common cause of fetal distress but is more directly related to maternal blood pressure than to a specific fetal heart rate pattern.
Choice E rationale
Cord compression is a mechanical issue that obstructs blood flow through the umbilical cord. It is the most common cause of variable decelerations, which are abrupt, visually apparent decreases in the fetal heart rate. The tracing, though not available, would likely show these variable decelerations in this context.
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