Select the signs and symptoms of asthma. Select All That Apply.
Joint pain
Chest Tightness
Increased appetite
Wheezing
Coughing
Correct Answer : B,D,E
Rationale:
A. Joint pain is not a symptom of asthma. Asthma is a chronic inflammatory airway disease and does not directly affect joints. Joint pain may indicate other conditions such as arthritis or autoimmune disorders, but it is unrelated to asthma.
B. Chest tightness is a common symptom of asthma. Airway inflammation and bronchoconstriction reduce airflow, leading to a sensation of pressure or tightness in the chest, often accompanied by difficulty breathing. This is particularly noticeable during an asthma exacerbation or after exposure to triggers.
C. Increased appetite is not associated with asthma. Appetite changes are unrelated to the pathophysiology of airway inflammation and bronchospasm.
D. Wheezing is a hallmark sign of asthma. It occurs due to turbulent airflow through narrowed bronchi and bronchioles caused by bronchospasm, mucus accumulation, and airway edema. Wheezing is often expiratory and may be audible without a stethoscope in severe cases.
E. Coughing is another key symptom of asthma. It can be dry or productive and is often worse at night or early morning. Coughing results from airway irritation and inflammation and may be the only presenting symptom in some patients, known as cough-variant asthma.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Rationale:
A. Psoriasis is a chronic autoimmune-mediated skin disorder characterized by hyperproliferation of keratinocytes and inflammation. Clinically, it presents as well-demarcated, erythematous plaques covered with silvery-white scales, often found on extensor surfaces such as the elbows, knees, scalp, and lower back. Psoriatic lesions are typically not ring-shaped, nor do they have a clear center, so psoriasis does not match the client’s description.
B. Tinea capitis is a fungal infection caused primarily by dermatophytes affecting the scalp. It presents with scaling, hair loss, broken hairs, and sometimes pustules or kerion formation. Lesions occur on the scalp and hair-bearing areas, not usually on the arm, and the classic ring-shaped pattern with central clearing seen in tinea corporis is not characteristic of tinea capitis.
C. Eczema (atopic dermatitis) is a chronic inflammatory skin condition associated with impaired skin barrier function and immune dysregulation. It typically presents as pruritic, erythematous, and sometimes oozing patches. The lesions are often irregularly shaped, may be lichenified, and lack the ring-shaped configuration with central clearing. While eczema can affect the arms, the pattern described in the client does not align with classic eczema presentation.
D. Tinea corporis, also known as ringworm of the body, is a superficial fungal infection caused by dermatophytes such as Trichophyton species. The pathophysiology involves fungal invasion of the stratum corneum, which induces an inflammatory response in the surrounding skin. Clinically, tinea corporis presents as annular (ring-shaped) lesions with raised, scaly borders and central clearing, which is highly distinctive. The clear center results from the resolution of fungal activity in the central area while the fungus continues to proliferate at the edges, producing the characteristic ring pattern. Lesions may be single or multiple and can occur on any exposed skin area, including the arms, legs, and trunk. The presence of a ring-shaped lesion with a clear center, as reported by the client, is a classic hallmark of tinea corporis, making this the most likely diagnosis.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Rationale:
A. Aplastic anemia is a type of cancer affecting the bone marrow is incorrect. Aplastic anemia is not a cancer. It is a bone marrow failure disorder in which the marrow fails to produce sufficient blood cells, including red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets. Unlike leukemia, it does not involve malignant proliferation of abnormal cells.
B. Aplastic anemia is usually caused by excess production of blood cells in the bone marrow is incorrect. In aplastic anemia, the bone marrow is hypocellular, meaning it produces too few blood cells, not an excess. Overproduction is characteristic of conditions like polycythemia vera, not aplastic anemia.
C. Aplastic anemia only affects red blood cells is incorrect. Aplastic anemia is pancytopenia, meaning it affects all blood cell lines: red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets. This results in anemia, increased risk of infection, and bleeding tendencies.
D. Aplastic anemia is a result in impaired bone marrow is correct. The hallmark of aplastic anemia is bone marrow failure, which can result from autoimmune destruction, exposure to toxins, medications, radiation, viral infections, or idiopathic causes. The impaired marrow leads to decreased production of all blood cells, causing the clinical features of fatigue, pallor, infections, and bleeding.
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