The advanced practice registered nurse (APRN) is performing the Weber test on an 80 year-old patient with known cochlear nerve damage. The APRN expects what findings?
Sound will lateralize to the patient's ears equally.
Sound will lateralize to the patient's unaffected ear
Sound will lateralize to the patient's affected ear
The patient will not hear the tuning fork at all.
The Correct Answer is B
A. Sound will lateralize to the patient's ears equally is incorrect because in unilateral sensorineural hearing loss, such as cochlear nerve damage, sound is not heard equally in both ears during the Weber test. Lateralization occurs toward the ear with better cochlear function.
B. Sound will lateralize to the patient's unaffected ear is correct because the Weber test detects unilateral hearing loss. In sensorineural hearing loss (cochlear nerve damage), sound is perceived louder in the unaffected ear. This happens because the affected cochlear nerve cannot transmit vibrations effectively, so the brain perceives sound predominantly from the normal, unaffected side.
C. Sound will lateralize to the patient's affected ear is incorrect because this occurs in conductive hearing loss, not sensorineural hearing loss. In conductive loss, the affected ear may actually perceive sound louder because background ambient noise is reduced, making the tuning fork vibration seem more prominent.
D. The patient will not hear the tuning fork at all is incorrect because sensorineural hearing loss typically affects one ear; the patient can still hear sound in the unaffected ear. Total inability to hear the tuning fork would suggest bilateral profound hearing loss, which is not specified here.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. CN VII - Facial is correct because Bell palsy results from a peripheral lesion of the facial nerve (cranial nerve VII). This nerve controls the muscles of facial expression, including forehead movement, eyelid closure, and mouth movement. A peripheral lesion causes paralysis of the entire side of the face, unlike a central lesion, which typically spares the forehead due to bilateral cortical innervation.
B. CN IX - Glossopharyngeal is incorrect because this nerve primarily innervates the posterior third of the tongue, pharynx, and parotid gland, affecting swallowing and taste, not facial movement. Lesions of CN IX would not cause hemifacial paralysis.
C. CN X - Vagus is incorrect because the vagus nerve controls laryngeal and pharyngeal muscles, autonomic function of the thorax and abdomen, and some palatal muscles. A lesion would cause hoarseness, dysphagia, or impaired gag reflex, not facial paralysis.
D. CN V - Trigeminal is incorrect because it primarily provides sensory innervation to the face and motor function for mastication. A lesion of CN V may cause facial numbness or difficulty chewing, but it does not cause paralysis of facial expression.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Pressing on the right lower quadrant and asking the patient to describe where the pain is worse is incorrect because this technique evaluates rebound tenderness, which is a sign of peritoneal irritation but does not specifically assess the psoas muscle. Rebound tenderness can indicate appendicitis, peritonitis, or other intra-abdominal inflammation, but it is not the psoas sign.
B. Pressing on the left lower quadrant and asking about right-sided pain is incorrect because this describes Rovsing’s sign, which tests for appendiceal irritation indirectly by palpating the opposite quadrant. Rovsing’s sign is distinct from the psoas maneuver, which specifically evaluates irritation of the psoas muscle, often due to a retrocecal appendix.
C. Asking the patient to raise their thigh against resistance is correct. The psoas sign is performed either by having the patient actively flex the right hip against resistance while lying supine or passively extending the right hip while the patient lies on their left side. A positive psoas sign produces pain in the right lower quadrant, indicating irritation of the psoas muscle, which is most commonly due to retrocecal appendicitis. This test helps localize inflammation along the posterior abdominal wall.
D. Flexing the patient’s right thigh with the knee bent and internally rotating the hip is incorrect because this describes the obturator sign, which evaluates pelvic appendicitis by stretching the obturator internus muscle. It produces pain in the right lower quadrant if the appendix is in a pelvic location, but it is a different maneuver than the psoas test.
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