An 82 year-old presents to the Emergency Department in the care of their extended family with new-onset speech impairment. According to family members, the patient awoke with this symptom as well as difficulty in understanding questions. On examination, the patient's speech is clear, fluent and rapid but lacks meaning and includes invented words. The patient is unable to follow simple commands or written instructions. Which of the following best describes this speech disorder?
Wernicke aphasia
Dysphonia
Dysarthria
Broca aphasia
The Correct Answer is A
A. Wernicke aphasia is correct because it is characterized by fluent, rapid speech that is often nonsensical, includes neologisms (invented words), and the patient demonstrates impaired comprehension of both spoken and written language. The patient cannot follow simple commands or understand questions, which is consistent with a receptive language deficit caused by damage to Wernicke’s area in the posterior superior temporal gyrus of the dominant hemisphere (usually the left).
B. Dysphonia is incorrect because it refers to disorders of vocal quality, pitch, or volume, typically due to laryngeal or vocal cord pathology. Dysphonia affects speech production but does not impair language comprehension or content.
C. Dysarthria is incorrect because it refers to impaired articulation of speech due to motor deficits (e.g., weakness, incoordination, or paralysis of the speech muscles). Dysarthric speech is often slurred, slow, or effortful, but comprehension is preserved, unlike in Wernicke aphasia.
D. Broca aphasia is incorrect because it involves nonfluent, effortful speech with relatively preserved comprehension. Patients often speak in short, broken phrases and omit small words (agrammatism), which is the opposite of the fluent but meaningless speech described in this patient.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Retinal detachment is correct because it often presents as sudden, painless, unilateral vision loss. Patients may describe a curtain or shadow descending over the visual field, flashes of light, or floaters. Retinal detachment is an ophthalmic emergency, as prompt surgical intervention is required to prevent permanent vision loss.
B. Corneal ulcer is incorrect because it typically causes pain, redness, tearing, photophobia, and decreased vision, not painless vision loss. Corneal ulcers are often associated with infection or trauma and are usually painful, unlike retinal detachment.
C. Acute glaucoma is incorrect because acute angle-closure glaucoma presents with sudden, severe eye pain, headache, nausea, halos around lights, and blurred vision, often with a steamy cornea and mid-dilated pupil. Vision loss is usually accompanied by significant discomfort, making it a painful condition rather than painless.
D. Uveitis is incorrect because it usually causes eye pain, photophobia, redness, and blurred vision, which are painful and inflammatory symptoms. Vision loss is not typically sudden and painless, and it may be bilateral depending on the underlying cause.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Cluster headaches is incorrect because cluster headaches typically cause severe, unilateral pain, usually around the eye or temporal region, rather than across both sides of the forehead. They are often described as sharp, piercing, or burning, and are commonly associated with autonomic symptoms such as tearing, nasal congestion, eyelid drooping, or facial sweating. The pain occurs in recurrent clusters, often at the same time each day. The patient’s symptoms of bilateral, moderate, non-throbbing pain do not match this pattern.
B. Migraine headaches is incorrect because migraines are usually unilateral and throbbing or pulsating in nature, often described as moderate to severe pain that worsens with activity. Migraines are commonly associated with nausea, vomiting, photophobia, phonophobia, and sometimes aura. The patient’s headache is described as non-throbbing and bilateral, which is inconsistent with typical migraine characteristics.
C. Tension headaches is correct because tension-type headaches are the most common primary headache disorder and are characterized by bilateral, non-throbbing pain that is typically mild to moderate in intensity. Patients often describe the sensation as tightness or pressure across the forehead or around the head, sometimes described as a band-like sensation. These headaches usually lack associated symptoms such as nausea or visual disturbances and often occur with stress, fatigue, or muscle tension. The patient’s description of moderate, non-throbbing pain affecting both sides of the forehead is classic for a tension headache.
D. Secondary headaches is incorrect because secondary headaches occur due to an underlying medical condition, such as infection, trauma, tumors, vascular disorders, or medication effects. The scenario describes a patient with no significant medical history and typical primary headache features, making a primary headache disorder more likely than a secondary cause.
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