The clinic nurse is evaluating vital signs for clients being seen in the outpatient clinic. Which client should the nurse see first?
The 42-year-old client who has a temperature of 100.2°F (37.8°C)
The 10-month-old infant who has a pulse rate of 140 beats per minute.
The 3-year-old toddler who has a respiratory rate of 28 breaths per minute
The 24-week gestational woman who has a blood pressure of 142/96 mm Hg
The Correct Answer is D
Vital sign prioritization relies on detection of hemodynamic instability, gestational hypertensive disorders, systemic infection indicators, and age-adjusted physiologic vital ranges. In pregnancy, elevated blood pressure after 20 weeks suggests preeclampsia risk, uteroplacental insufficiency, and potential progression to eclampsia or organ dysfunction.
Rationale:
A. Temperature of 100.2°F (37.8°C) indicates low-grade pyrexia, commonly associated with mild viral illness or early infection. It does not meet criteria for systemic inflammatory response or sepsis. The client is stable and does not require immediate assessment.
B. A pulse of 140 beats per minute in a 10-month-old infant may be within normal physiologic range depending on activity, crying, or stress. Infants commonly have heart rates between 100–160 bpm. No immediate cardiovascular instability is indicated.
C. A respiratory rate of 28 breaths per minute in a 3-year-old toddler falls within normal pediatric range (20–30 breaths per minute). There are no signs of respiratory distress such as retractions or hypoxia. This finding is physiologically appropriate for age.
D. A blood pressure of 142/96 mm Hg at 24 weeks gestation indicates gestational hypertension, highly suspicious for evolving preeclampsia. This condition poses immediate risk of maternal-fetal compromise including seizure, placental abruption, and end-organ damage. This client requires urgent evaluation.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Safe delegation and assignment in critical care necessitate matching the clinical complexity of the client with the competency level of the practitioner. Graduate nurses (GNs) require stable assignments with predictable outcomes to consolidate their skills without the risk of rapid physiological deterioration. Avoiding clients requiring titratable vasopressors or complex neurological monitoring is essential for maintaining patient safety and ensuring the GN’s professional development is not compromised by high-acuity emergencies.
Rationale:
A. This client is the most appropriate for a GN because the clinical status is predictable and stable, despite the terminal nature of the illness. Caring for a dying client on a ventilator focuses on palliative care and family support, which are fundamental nursing competencies. It avoids the high-stress, rapid decision-making required for managing acute hemodynamic instability or intracranial emergencies.
B. Managing increased intracranial pressure (ICP) requires advanced skills in neurological assessment and the careful administration of osmotic diuretics like mannitol. Clients with brain injuries are at extreme risk for herniation syndromes, which can occur with very subtle clinical changes. A GN lacks the specialized experience to detect the minute deviations in cerebral perfusion that indicate a life-threatening crisis.
C. A C-5 spinal cord injury experiencing spinal shock is highly unstable and requires intensive monitoring of autonomic dysfunction. The use of dopamine, a potent vasopressor, necessitates frequent hemodynamic titration based on mean arterial pressure (MAP) and cardiac output. This level of pharmacologic complexity is unsuitable for a new graduate and requires the expertise of a seasoned critical-care nurse.
D. Status epilepticus is a medical emergency characterized by continuous seizure activity that can lead to permanent neuronal damage or respiratory failure. Managing a client who has been in this state for 24 hours requires expert knowledge of anticonvulsant protocols and advanced airway management. The high potential for metabolic exhaustion and status recurrence makes this assignment far too complex for a nurse who has just completed orientation.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Acute respiratory failure manifests through alveolar hypoventilation and severe ventilation-perfusion mismatch, leading to uncompensated acidemia. When the pH drops below 7.35 alongside rising PaCO2, it signifies a failure of respiratory homeostasis and impending exhaustion. Failure to intervene promptly in the presence of concomitant hypoxemia leads to rapid cardiac arrest or neurological damage.
Rationale:
A. Client 4 exhibits euglycemic homeostasis with ABG values within the physiological reference ranges. A pH of 7.41 and PaCO2 of 43 mmHg indicate that the pneumothorax is currently stabilized or resolving. This client does not require immediate prioritization over those with active acid-base imbalances and ventilation failure.
B. Client 1 is the priority due to uncompensated acidemia and a pH of 7.34. The significantly elevated PaCO2 of 55 mmHg and hypoxemia indicate acute respiratory failure superimposed on their chronic condition. This client is at the highest risk for respiratory arrest and requires immediate stabilization and potential ventilatory support.
C. Client 2 shows compensated alkalosis or a compensated state because the pH has returned to the low-normal range of 7.35. While the PaCO2 and PaO2 remain abnormal, the body has achieved metabolic compensation through the kidneys. This client is more stable than Client 1, whose pH remains dangerously low.
D. Client 3 presents with respiratory alkalosis characterized by a pH of 7.48 and a low PaCO2 of 30 mmHg. This is typical of hyperventilation during an acute asthma or reactive airway episode. While they require monitoring, they are not currently in a state of acidotic collapse, making them a secondary priority.
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