The health care provider prescribes finasteride (5-alpha reductase inhibitor) for a 56-year-old male patient who has benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). When teaching the patient about the drug, the nurse informs him that:
This medication cannot be handled by pregnant women.
Improvement in the obstructive symptoms should occur within about 1 week.
A common side effect is male pattern baldness.
He could experience an increase in blood pressure.
The Correct Answer is A
This question focuses on patient education for 5-alpha reductase inhibitors. It requires understanding the teratogenic potential of the medication, as it interferes with testosterone metabolism, which is a significant safety concern for pregnant women who may come into contact with the drug.
Choice A rationale
Finasteride inhibits the conversion of testosterone to dihydrotestosterone, which is necessary for male fetal development. Because it can be absorbed through the skin, pregnant women must not handle crushed or broken tablets to avoid potential fetal reproductive abnormalities.
Choice B rationale
Finasteride works by shrinking the prostate gland over time, which is a slow physiological process. Patients typically do not notice significant improvements in obstructive symptoms of BPH until at least 3 to 6 months of consistent daily therapy.
Choice C rationale
Finasteride actually promotes hair growth and is used at lower doses to treat male pattern baldness. It is not associated with causing hair loss; rather, it is clinically used to reverse the process of male pattern androgenic alopecia.
Choice D rationale
Finasteride does not have a pharmacologic mechanism that increases blood pressure. It acts specifically on the prostate and hair follicles by blocking the enzyme 5-alpha reductase. Hypertension is not a side effect associated with the use of this medication.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
This question addresses the acute management of asthma exacerbations. It requires understanding the pharmacological action of bronchodilators, specifically the need for rapid-acting agents that induce immediate smooth muscle relaxation in the airways to improve ventilation during a bronchospastic event.
Choice A rationale
Corticosteroids are effective anti-inflammatory agents used to reduce airway inflammation in asthma. However, they have a delayed onset of action, making them inappropriate as the sole or initial treatment for rapid bronchodilation during an acute asthma attack.
Choice B rationale
Anticholinergics like ipratropium bromide can be used as an adjunct in acute asthma management, especially in severe cases. They are not the first-line initial treatment, which remains a fast-acting bronchodilator to address acute airway obstruction immediately.
Choice C rationale
Long-acting beta 2 agonists are maintenance medications used for long-term control of asthma. They have a slow onset of action and are not indicated for use during an acute asthma attack, as they do not provide rapid bronchodilation.
Choice D rationale
Short-acting beta 2 agonists, such as albuterol, are the first-line therapy for acute asthma. They provide rapid, potent bronchodilation by stimulating beta 2 receptors, effectively relaxing airway smooth muscles and reversing bronchospasm within minutes of administration.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
This question focuses on the pharmacological management of opioid withdrawal. It requires identifying the use of long-acting opioid agonists, which provide a controlled, stable effect on the nervous system, helping to suppress withdrawal symptoms and reduce cravings while minimizing the potential for intoxication.
Choice A rationale
Disulfiram is a medication used to treat alcohol use disorder. It works by causing severe adverse reactions if the patient consumes alcohol. It has no pharmacological role in managing opioid withdrawal symptoms and would be entirely ineffective for this purpose.
Choice B rationale
Betalol is not a recognized medication used for managing opioid withdrawal. Medications for withdrawal are selected for their ability to interact with opioid receptors or mitigate the autonomic nervous system hyper-arousal that occurs during the process of opioid cessation in patients.
Choice C rationale
Methadone is a long-acting synthetic opioid agonist used to manage opioid withdrawal and dependence. It binds to the same receptors as heroin or morphine but has a slower onset and longer duration, helping to prevent withdrawal while reducing illicit drug cravings.
Choice D rationale
Diazepam is a benzodiazepine used for anxiety or muscle spasms. While it may sometimes be used to manage some withdrawal symptoms, methadone is the specific pharmacological intervention used for opioid withdrawal because it directly targets the underlying neurochemical dependence on opioids.
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