The healthcare provider has decreased the dosage of a medication for a client who is malnourished. What is the nurse's correct understanding of the rationale for this action by the healthcare provider?

Higher amounts of free drug in the body may lead to toxicity.

Since the body's metabolism is slower, less drug is required.

Serum protein levels are higher than normal, requiring less medication.

The action is not correct since a malnourished person requires more medication to be effective.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

A. Higher amounts of free drug in the body may lead to toxicity: Many medications are highly protein-bound, primarily to albumin. Malnutrition causes hypoalbuminemia, leaving fewer binding sites available for the drug molecules. This increases the concentration of pharmacologically active "free" drug, significantly elevating the risk of toxic effects.

B. Since the body's metabolism is slower, less drug is required: While metabolic rates may fluctuate, the primary concern in malnutrition is the change in drug distribution and protein binding. Decreased hepatic enzyme activity may occur, but the immediate risk stems from high free drug levels. Protein availability is the dominant pharmacokinetic factor here.

C. Serum protein levels are higher than normal, requiring less medication: Malnutrition is characterized by protein-energy deficits, which lead to decreased serum albumin and total protein levels. Higher protein levels would actually lead to more drug binding and less free drug. This choice contradicts the physiological reality of the malnourished state.

D. The action is not correct since a malnourished person requires more medication to be effective: Increasing the dose for a malnourished client would be dangerous and potentially lethal. With fewer transport proteins, even standard doses can become toxic. Reducing the dose is a necessary safety precaution to account for increased drug bioavailability.

Nursing Test Bank

Test Bank #1: RN Pharmacology Exams Test Bank #2: RN Medical-Surgical Exams Test Bank #3: RN Fundamentals Exams Test Bank #4: RN Maternal-Newborn Exams Test Bank #5: RN Anatomy and Physiology Exams Test Bank #6: RN Obstetrics and Pediatrics Exams Test Bank #7: RN Fluid and Electrolytes Exams Test Bank #9: RN Adult Health Test Bank #10: RN Dosage Calculation Test Bank #11: RN Community Health Exams Test Bank #12: RN Psychology Exams Test Bank #13: RN Nursing Care Of Children Test Bank #14: RN Foundations of Nursing Exams

Get 100+ Naxlex Exit Exams for $79 Try Naxlex NCLEX-RN (14 Day Free-Trial)

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Exam #1: RN Comprehensive predictor 2023 proctored exam Exam #2: Ati rn vati comprehensive predictor proctored exam Exam #3: Ati Rn Comprehensive Predictor Proctored Exam 2023 Exam #4: Rn Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Proctored Exam - St. Joseph Exam #5: RN Comprehensive Predictor Proctored Exam (National U CA San Diego) Exam #6: Ati rn comprehensive predictor 2023 retake proctored exam Exam #7: RN Hesi Exit Proctored Exam Exam #8: Hesi RN Exit proctored exam Exam #9: Hesi rn exit proctored exam Exam #10: Hesi Rn compass exit B proctored exam

Free Nursing Study Resources

Correct Answer is ["1.25"]

Explanation

Dose prescribed /Dose available=Amount to administer

25mg20mg/ml=1.25ml

A. Hemorrhage B. Wound infection C. Wound dehiscence D. Fistula development

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. Hemorrhage: This complication involves acute, profuse blood loss from damaged vascular structures within the surgical site. Clinical manifestations typically include hematoma formation, hypovolemia, or bright red sanguineous output. The presence of intact edges and serosanguinous fluid contradicts active arterial or venous bleeding.

B. Wound infection: Pathogenic colonization triggers an inflammatory response characterized by localized erythema and edema around the incision. Increased serosanguinous or purulent exudate reflects the body's immunological reaction to microbial invasion. These clinical markers are classic precursors to localized sepsis or abscess formation.

C. Wound dehiscence: This mechanical failure involves the partial or total separation of previously approximated wound layers. While serosanguinous drainage can precede this event, the question specifically states the incision edges remain intact. Therefore, the structural integrity of the wound has not yet been compromised.

D. Fistula development: This represents the formation of an abnormal passage between two internal organs or an organ and the skin. It usually results from chronic inflammation, malignancy, or severe infection rather than acute post-operative edema. The localized symptoms described are more indicative of a superficial or deep infection.

View Question and Answer

Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.

Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today

The healthcare provider has decreased the dosage of a medication for a client who is malnourished. What is the nurse's correct understanding of the rationale for this action by the healthcare provider?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The physician orders diphenhydramine 25 mg IV now for a client with a mild medication reaction. Diphenhydramine 20 mg/mL is available. How many mL should the nurse administer? (Please Show All Work on Provided scrap paper, enter numerical value only. Do not enter unit of measurement).

Correct Answer is ["1.25"]

Explanation

The nurse is caring for a client with a surgical incision and identifies the following assessments: Incision edges are intact. The area around incision is red and edematous. An increase in serosanguinous drainage is noted from yesterday. Which complication does the nurse anticipate is occurring?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

The nurse is caring for an immobile client and identifies these findings: Painful, persistent non-blanchable erythema at site of right greater trochanter. Skin remains intact. How would the nurse identify these findings in documentation?

A client, who has developed peritonitis, is receiving gentamicin 1 g IV q8h. The medication is administered on the following schedule: 0600, 1400, and 2200 and is to infuse for 30 minutes. The 1400 dose has begun infusing. When should the peak blood level be drawn?

Which assessment information given upon admission directs the nurse to assess for pressure injuries? (Select all that apply)

The nurse questions the wound care specialist about the meaning of an un-stageable pressure injury. Which statement about this condition is correct?

The nurse and the healthcare provider are discussing the use of fentanyl to manage a client's pain. Which route will achieve the longest duration of pain relief for the client?

The physician orders escitalopram (Lexapro) 10 mg PO daily for a patient with depression. The availability is oral solution 5mg/5mL. How many mL will the nurse administer? (Please Show All Work on Provided scrap paper, enter numerical value only. Do not enter unit of measurement).

The nurse has identified the following findings upon assessment of a client's left lower leg wound: copious amounts of drainage and pain relief with elevation. How would the nurse identify this wound in documentation?