The most common type of headache is:
Cluster headache
Migraine with aura
Migraine without aura
Tension-type headache
The Correct Answer is D
Headaches are broadly classified into primary types, with variations in etiology, clinical presentation, and frequency. The most prevalent form encountered in clinical practice is the tension-type headache, often associated with stress, muscle strain, and psychosocial factors. It typically presents as a bilateral, dull, pressure-like pain without significant neurological symptoms. Understanding the different headache types is essential for accurate diagnosis and management.
Rationale:
A. Cluster headache is a relatively rare primary headache disorder characterized by severe unilateral periorbital pain, often accompanied by autonomic symptoms such as lacrimation and nasal congestion. Attacks occur in clusters over weeks to months, followed by remission periods. Despite its intensity, its prevalence is significantly lower compared to other headache types.
B. Migraine with aura involves recurrent headaches preceded by transient neurological symptoms such as visual disturbances, sensory changes, or speech difficulties. This subtype represents a smaller proportion of migraine cases overall. Its episodic nature and specific features make it less common than tension-type headaches in the general population.
C. Migraine without aura is more common than migraine with aura and presents with unilateral, pulsating pain associated with nausea, photophobia, and phonophobia. While migraines are common overall, they still occur less frequently than tension-type headaches. The disabling nature of migraines often leads to clinical attention despite their lower prevalence.
D. Tension-type headache is the most common primary headache disorder worldwide. It is characterized by mild to moderate, bilateral, non-pulsating pain often described as a tight band around the head. It lacks the nausea and neurological symptoms seen in migraines and is frequently associated with stress, fatigue, or poor posture, contributing to its high prevalence.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Opioid analgesics are classified based on their activity at opioid receptors as full agonists, partial agonists, or agonist-antagonists. Agonist-antagonist opioids stimulate certain receptors while blocking others, producing analgesia with a lower risk of respiratory depression compared to full agonists. These drugs are often used in specific pain management situations or to reduce abuse potential. Understanding these classifications is essential for safe opioid selection and preventing adverse effects.
Rationale:
A. Nalbuphine is an agonist-antagonist opioid that acts as a kappa receptor agonist and a mu receptor antagonist. This dual action provides analgesia while limiting the degree of respiratory depression and euphoria. It is commonly used for moderate to severe pain and is known for having a ceiling effect on respiratory depression.
B. Pentazocine is another agonist-antagonist opioid that stimulates kappa receptors and partially blocks mu receptors. It produces analgesia but may also cause side effects such as dysphoria and hallucinations due to its receptor profile. It is classified clearly within the agonist-antagonist group.
C. Buprenorphine functions as a partial agonist at mu receptors and an antagonist at kappa receptors, placing it within the agonist-antagonist category. It is used for both pain management and opioid dependence treatment due to its ceiling effect on respiratory depression and lower abuse potential.
D. Morphine is a full opioid agonist that strongly activates mu receptors without antagonist activity. It produces potent analgesia but carries a higher risk of respiratory depression, dependence, and euphoria. Because it lacks antagonist properties, it does not belong to the agonist-antagonist class.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Postoperative patients receiving patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) with opioids such as Morphine sulfate are at risk for opioid-induced respiratory depression and central nervous system suppression. Over-sedation, bradypnea, hypotension, and altered mental status are warning signs of opioid toxicity. Pupillary changes, lethargy, and reduced respiratory rate indicate a potentially life-threatening overdose. Immediate intervention focuses on airway protection, reversal of opioid effects, and hemodynamic stabilization.
Rationale:
A. Noting the effectiveness of analgesia is inappropriate because the patient shows signs of opioid toxicity rather than therapeutic pain control. Drowsiness, respiratory depression, hypotension, and altered mental status indicate overdose rather than adequate analgesia. Documenting effectiveness at this stage would delay urgent intervention and compromise patient safety.
B. Discussing possible opioid dependence is not the priority in an acute clinical deterioration. The immediate concern is respiratory depression and cardiovascular instability, which require urgent reversal and supportive care. Dependence assessment is a long-term consideration and does not address the current life-threatening condition.
C. Encouraging the patient to turn, cough, and take deep breaths may be useful in mild sedation but is unsafe in this scenario. The patient has a respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute and signs of significant CNS depression, indicating opioid overdose. Stimulation alone is insufficient and delays definitive treatment.
D. The findings are consistent with opioid-induced respiratory depression requiring emergency reversal with an opioid antagonist such as Naloxone. Naloxone rapidly displaces opioids from receptors, restoring respiratory drive. The nurse should also prepare for ventilatory support because rebound sedation may occur, and airway protection may be necessary to stabilize oxygenation and circulation.
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