The nurse admits a patient from the emergency department who is suspected of having influenza.
The nurse prepares equipment and anticipates placing the patient on which type of precaution?
Airborne precautions.
Contact precautions.
Droplet precautions.
Universal precautions.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale
Airborne precautions are reserved for diseases with very small particles that remain suspended in the air and travel over long distances, such as tuberculosis, measles, or varicella (chickenpox). Influenza droplets are generally large and do not remain suspended in the air for long periods, falling rapidly, thus requiring droplet precautions instead of the more restrictive airborne type.
Choice B rationale
Contact precautions are used for infections spread by direct or indirect contact with the patient or the patient's environment, such as Clostridium difficile or antibiotic-resistant organisms like MRSA. While contact can spread influenza, the primary route is large respiratory droplets, making droplet precautions the most specific and necessary type of isolation.
Choice C rationale
Influenza is primarily spread by large respiratory droplets expelled when an infected person coughs, sneezes, or talks. These droplets travel a short distance (typically less than 3 to 6 feet) before settling. Droplet precautions, including placing the patient in a private room and requiring staff to wear a surgical mask within the specified distance, are essential to prevent transmission.
Choice D rationale
Universal precautions, now generally referred to as Standard Precautions, involve basic infection control practices like hand hygiene and using personal protective equipment (PPE) for contact with blood, body fluids, non-intact skin, and mucous membranes of all patients. While always used, they are insufficient alone for preventing influenza spread, which requires the added barrier of droplet precautions.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Reassuring the patient these are expected effects dismisses potentially serious anticholinergic side effects associated with ipratropium, a muscarinic antagonist. Difficulty urinating (urinary retention) and blurred vision, especially in an elderly patient, could indicate significant systemic absorption, necessitating dosage adjustment or alternative therapy to prevent complications.
Choice B rationale
Increasing fluid intake is insufficient and potentially harmful if severe urinary retention is the cause of the difficulty, as it could exacerbate bladder distension. Ipratropium acts by blocking muscarinic receptors, relaxing detrusor muscle tone and potentially causing retention, which is a significant adverse effect requiring medical evaluation.
Choice C rationale
Notifying the healthcare provider is the priority because these symptoms (urinary retention, blurred vision) are significant anticholinergic side effects of ipratropium, particularly concerning in a 70-year-old with potential prostatic hypertrophy or glaucoma. These adverse effects may require dose reduction or a change in medication to prevent serious harm.
Choice D rationale
While ipratropium is a maintenance treatment, not a rescue inhaler, instructing the patient to only use it when wheezing does not address the current adverse drug effects. Systemic side effects indicate the need for medical assessment and potential drug modification, not just a change in usage pattern.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Pseudoephedrine is a sympathomimetic drug that acts primarily as an alpha and beta agonist, stimulating the central nervous system (CNS). This stimulation usually leads to wakefulness, nervousness, and insomnia, rather than excessive sleepiness, which is a CNS depressant effect. Drowsiness can occur but is less common than CNS stimulation effects, as the drug promotes adrenergic activity.
Choice B rationale
Pseudoephedrine stimulates beta-1 adrenergic receptors in the heart, leading to an increase in heart rate (tachycardia) and force of contraction. This enhanced cardiac activity can be perceived by the patient as palpitations (irregular or rapid heartbeat). The normal adult heart rate is 60 to 100 beats per minute, and this drug can push it toward the upper limit or beyond.
Choice C rationale
Pseudoephedrine acts as a vasoconstrictor by stimulating alpha-1 adrenergic receptors on blood vessels, leading to an increase in systemic vascular resistance. This increase in resistance and cardiac stimulation typically results in a rise in blood pressure (hypertension), not hypotension. The normal adult blood pressure is less than 120/80 mm Hg.
Choice D rationale
Pseudoephedrine is generally a bronchodilator due to its beta-2 adrenergic receptor stimulation, which relaxes bronchial smooth muscles and improves (not worsens) respiration. Shallow respirations are a sign of respiratory depression or distress, which is not a common adverse effect of this sympathomimetic, which tends to increase the respiratory drive.
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