The nurse has reviewed the provider prescriptions at 1045.

Which of the following actions should the nurse perform first?

Apply dressing to foot wound.

Consult outpatient wound care specialist.

Schedule appointment with ophthalmologist.

Administer regular insulin 4 units subcutaneously x 1 dose

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

Apply dressing to foot wound: While wound care is important, managing hyperglycemia takes priority. High blood glucose impairs wound healing and increases infection risk, making insulin administration the more urgent intervention. Dressing application should follow glycemic control measures.

Consult outpatient wound care specialist: A wound care consultation is appropriate for managing a chronic ulcer, but immediate intervention is required to stabilize glucose levels. Optimizing wound care should come after initial glucose management.

Schedule appointment with ophthalmologist: Clients with diabetes require routine eye exams due to the risk of diabetic retinopathy. However, addressing hyperglycemia and preventing further infection are more urgent concerns at this time.

Administer regular insulin 4 units subcutaneously x 1 dose: The client's blood glucose is elevated (250 mg/dL), which can impair immune function and tissue healing. Lowering glucose with insulin is the priority to prevent complications such as worsening infection or ketoacidosis.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. Increase in urinary output: Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic that promotes diuresis to reduce intracranial pressure (ICP). Increased urinary output is an expected effect and indicates the medication is working as intended.

B. Crackles on auscultation: Mannitol can lead to fluid overload, especially in clients with compromised renal or cardiac function. Crackles in the lungs suggest pulmonary edema, a serious adverse effect that should be reported immediately to prevent respiratory distress.

C. Intracranial pressure reading of 12 mm Hg: Normal ICP ranges from 5 to 15 mm Hg. A reading of 12 mm Hg is within the expected range and does not indicate an adverse effect of mannitol.

D. Glasgow coma scale rating of 15: A score of 15 indicates full consciousness and normal neurological function. This finding does not suggest an adverse reaction to mannitol.

A. PO oxycodone B. Ibuprofen via NG tube C. IV hydromorphone D. Topical lidocaine patch

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. PO oxycodone: Oral medications are contraindicated in clients with paralytic ileus because of impaired gastrointestinal motility, which prevents proper absorption and increases the risk of gastric retention. IV administration is preferred for effective pain control in this scenario.

B. Ibuprofen via NG tube: NSAIDs can cause gastric irritation and increase the risk of gastrointestinal bleeding, especially in clients with pancreatitis. Additionally, an NG tube is not an appropriate route for medication administration in the presence of an ileus due to impaired intestinal function.

C. IV hydromorphone: IV opioids provide effective and rapid pain relief for clients with severe pain, especially when oral or enteral administration is not feasible. Hydromorphone is commonly used in acute pancreatitis because it controls pain effectively without exacerbating the underlying condition.

D. Topical lidocaine patch: While lidocaine patches provide localized pain relief, they are not sufficient for managing severe visceral pain associated with pancreatitis and ileus. Systemic analgesia via IV opioids is more appropriate for controlling this level of pain.

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The nurse has reviewed the provider prescriptions at 1045. Which of the following actions should the nurse perform first?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is monitoring a client who has a head injury and is receiving mannitol 25% IV. The nurse should identify that which of the following is an adverse effect of the medication and should be reported to the provider?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A nurse is caring for a client who has developed a paralytic ileus related to acute pancreatitis and reports pain as 8 on a scale of 0 to 10. The client has prescriptions for multiple PRN pain medications. Which of the following medications should the nurse administer?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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The nurse has reviewed the provider prescriptions at 1045.

Which of the following actions should the nurse perform first?