The nurse includes in the instructions to a 50-year-old male client taking estrogens as treatment for prostate cancer that he may develop?
Enlarged gonads.
Acne.
Increased hirsutism.
Gynecomastia.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale
Enlarged gonads are not a typical side effect of estrogen therapy for prostate cancer. Estrogens, by acting as negative feedback on the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal (HPG) axis, suppress luteinizing hormone (LH) and follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) release from the pituitary. This suppression leads to decreased testicular production of testosterone, resulting in gonadal atrophy (shrinkage), rather than enlargement, and reduced sperm production.
Choice B rationale
Acne is not a common side effect of estrogen therapy in males; in fact, it often improves. Acne is primarily androgen-dependent, stimulated by high levels of testosterone and other androgens, which promote sebum production and follicular keratinization. Estrogen therapy, by suppressing testosterone, effectively reduces androgenic stimulation, leading to a decrease in sebaceous gland activity and subsequent improvement in acne symptoms.
Choice C rationale
Increased hirsutism, or excessive hair growth, is not a typical side effect of estrogen therapy in males. Hirsutism is primarily driven by androgenic hormones, which stimulate terminal hair growth in androgen-sensitive areas. Estrogen therapy, by reducing endogenous testosterone levels, often leads to a decrease in body hair and may result in a more feminized hair pattern, rather than increased hirsutism.
Choice D rationale
Gynecomastia, the enlargement of male breast tissue, is a very common and expected side effect of estrogen therapy for prostate cancer. Estrogens stimulate the proliferation of mammary ductal epithelial cells and increase fat deposition in breast tissue. This effect is dose-dependent and results from the direct agonistic action of estrogens on estrogen receptors in breast tissue, leading to breast tenderness and palpable breast enlargement.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Decreasing fluid intake can lead to dehydration, which exacerbates fatigue by impairing cellular metabolic processes and reducing blood volume, thus decreasing oxygen and nutrient delivery to tissues. Optimal hydration is crucial for maintaining cellular function, electrolyte balance, and overall energy levels, as it supports efficient metabolic waste removal and nutrient transport, thereby mitigating fatigue associated with radiation therapy. Normal fluid intake for an adult is typically 2.5-3.5 liters per day.
Choice B rationale
Planning 4-5 hours of daytime rest can disrupt normal nocturnal sleep patterns, leading to fragmented sleep and an exacerbation of fatigue. Excessive daytime napping can alter the circadian rhythm, making it difficult to achieve restorative sleep at night, which is essential for cellular repair, hormone regulation, and energy restoration. Short, strategic naps of 20-30 minutes are generally more beneficial to alleviate fatigue without interfering with nighttime sleep.
Choice C rationale
Avoiding between-meal snacks can lead to prolonged periods without caloric intake, resulting in hypoglycemia and depleted energy reserves, which significantly contribute to fatigue. Regular, small, nutrient-dense snacks help maintain stable blood glucose levels, providing a continuous supply of energy for metabolic processes and preventing the energy troughs that intensify fatigue. Adequate nutrition is vital for cellular energy production during radiation therapy.
Choice D rationale
Prioritizing activities from important to least important allows the client to conserve energy for essential tasks, preventing overexertion and managing fatigue effectively. This strategy, known as energy conservation, involves pacing activities, delegating non-essential tasks, and incorporating rest periods, thereby optimizing energy utilization and minimizing the physiological and psychological burden of fatigue commonly experienced during radiation therapy.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Hypophosphatemia, a low level of phosphate, is not typically expected in tumor lysis syndrome (TLS). Instead, the rapid breakdown of tumor cells releases intracellular components, including large amounts of phosphate, leading to hyperphosphatemia, not hypophosphatemia.
Choice B rationale
Hypokalemia, a low level of potassium, is not expected in tumor lysis syndrome. The lysis of tumor cells releases significant quantities of intracellular potassium into the bloodstream, leading to hyperkalemia, which is a life-threatening electrolyte imbalance due to its impact on cardiac function.
Choice C rationale
Hypouricemia, a low level of uric acid, is not expected in tumor lysis syndrome. The rapid catabolism of purines from lysed tumor cells leads to a massive production of uric acid, resulting in hyperuricemia. This can precipitate in the renal tubules, causing acute kidney injury.
Choice D rationale
Hyperkalemia is a hallmark laboratory finding in tumor lysis syndrome. The rapid destruction of large numbers of cancer cells releases their intracellular contents into the bloodstream. Since potassium is abundant within cells, its release leads to a significant elevation in serum potassium levels. Normal potassium levels are 3.5 to 5.0 mEq/L.
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