The nurse is aware that the most common sign of a vaginal hematoma is
excessive blood loss and fever
severe perineal pain and pressure
uterine atony
hypotension
The Correct Answer is B
A. excessive blood loss and fever: Hematomas are characterized by occult bleeding into the pelvic soft tissues rather than overt vaginal hemorrhage. While a large hematoma can eventually lead to a drop in hemoglobin, the blood remains trapped within the tissue space. Fever is a sign of infectious processes like chorioamnionitis.
B. severe perineal pain and pressure: The accumulation of blood within the vaginal or vulvar fascia causes intense, localized pain that is often described as a rectal pressure or a tearing sensation. This pain is typically disproportionate to the visible trauma or the expected recovery from delivery. It is the hallmark clinical sign.
C. uterine atony: This condition refers to the failure of the myometrium to contract effectively after placental delivery, leading to brisk external bleeding from the placental site. Atony is a separate cause of postpartum hemorrhage that involves the uterine fundus rather than the vaginal wall. Hematomas can occur even with a firm, contracted uterus.
D. hypotension: Low blood pressure is a late sign of significant internal or external blood loss and indicates hypovolemic shock. While a massive, expanding hematoma can eventually cause hemodynamic instability, it is not the most common or early diagnostic sign. Pain and pressure precede systemic changes in vital signs.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Hypotension: Regional anesthesia causes sympathetic blockade, leading to peripheral vasodilation and a rapid decrease in systemic vascular resistance. This often results in a significant drop in maternal blood pressure, which can reduce uteroplacental perfusion and cause fetal bradycardia. It is the most frequent and serious side effect of epidural placement.
B. Hypervolemia: This condition is characterized by an excess of fluid in the intravascular compartment, which is not a side effect of epidural administration. In fact, patients often require a fluid bolus to counteract the relative hypovolemia caused by vasodilation. Epidural anesthesia does not trigger fluid retention or volume overload.
C. Hyperemia: This term refers to an increased blood flow to a specific organ or tissue, which is not a systemic complication associated with spinal or epidural blocks. While local vasodilation occurs, the primary clinical concern is the systemic drop in blood pressure rather than localized tissue congestion. It lacks relevance as a major anesthetic complication.
D. Hyponatremia: Low serum sodium levels are typically associated with excessive free water administration or oxytocin-induced water intoxication. Epidural anesthesia does not directly alter electrolyte balance or renal water excretion. Monitoring focuses on hemodynamic stability and respiratory status rather than acute changes in serum sodium concentration.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Macrosomia: A fetal weight exceeding 4000 to 4500 grams is the primary risk factor for the impaction of the anterior shoulder behind the pubic symphysis. Disproportion between the fetal shoulders and the maternal pelvic outlet causes this obstetric emergency. It is common in infants of diabetic mothers.
B. preterm birth: Small, preterm fetuses are less likely to experience shoulder dystocia because their diameters are typically smaller than the maternal pelvic dimensions. Delivery complications in preterm labor usually involve malpresentation or respiratory distress. Increased size, not prematurity, is the mechanical trigger for dystocia.
C. polyhydramnios: An excess of amniotic fluid may lead to cord prolapse or malpresentation but does not mechanically cause shoulder impaction. While it can be associated with gestational diabetes, the fluid volume itself does not obstruct the delivery of the shoulders. Dystocia is a skeletal and soft tissue conflict.
D. maternal age: Advanced maternal age is not an independent physiological cause of shoulder dystocia. While older mothers may have comorbid conditions like diabetes, the age of the patient does not dictate the mechanical fit of the fetus. Fetal size remains the most significant predictive factor for impaction.
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