The nurse is caring for a client whose fetus is at +4 station and in vertex presentation. The nurse notices the fetal heart rate drops from 160 to 120 beats per minute.
The nurse plans and implements care with which consideration in mind?
Severe back discomfort will occur for the client.
A cesarean birth probably will be necessary.
The fetus is experiencing increased intracranial pressure.
The decreased heart rate is from meconium in the amniotic fluid.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale
While the fetus at +4 station is deep in the pelvis, which can cause significant back discomfort due to the fetal occiput pressing on the maternal sacrum (occiput posterior position), the sudden drop in FHR (fetal heart rate) from 160 bpm (normal range 110-160 bpm) to 120 bpm is an acute concern unrelated to chronic back pain, though it could accompany intense contractions or pushing.
Choice B rationale
A fetal heart rate drop from 160 to 120 bpm, especially with the fetus at +4 station (meaning the presenting part is well past the ischial spines and close to delivery), may indicate a brief, benign event like a head compression (early deceleration) or potentially a more concerning one like a cord compression (variable deceleration), but does not automatically necessitate a cesarean birth unless the drop is persistent, severe, or indicative of fetal distress not resolving with interventions.
Choice C rationale
The fetal head being at +4 station (vertex presentation) is deep in the pelvis and the head is subject to significant compression during intense labor contractions. This compression can cause a temporary increase in intracranial pressure which stimulates the vagus nerve, resulting in a reflex deceleration of the heart rate (FHR drops) known as an early deceleration.
Choice D rationale
Meconium-stained amniotic fluid results from fetal gastrointestinal tract peristalsis and sphincter relaxation, often due to hypoxia or vagal stimulation. While the FHR drop could be related to hypoxia, the decreased heart rate itself is not directly from the meconium, which is a sign of a possible problem, not the cause of the acute FHR change.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Genetic counseling is a non-directive process where the counselor provides comprehensive information about potential fetal conditions, including severity, inheritance patterns, and management options. Suggesting abortion, regardless of the defect's compatibility with life, is a directive approach that violates the core ethical principle of autonomy and the non-directive nature of genetic counseling. The couple makes the final informed decision, not the counselor.
Choice B rationale
Genetic counselors focus on providing accurate risk assessment, diagnostic information, and all available options, including continuation of pregnancy, adoption, or termination, but they do not make recommendations or push for any specific option. Non-directive counseling supports the client's autonomous decision-making; suggesting adoption as a primary course of action would constitute a violation of this ethical and professional standard.
Choice C rationale
Genetic counselors are experts who facilitate understanding of the medical and genetic implications. While they often coordinate care, the primary role is information provision and emotional support, not decision-making assistance from another provider. The counselor determines the probability and explains it, and then the client (the couple) makes the fully informed, autonomous decision based on their values, religious beliefs, and ethics.
Choice D rationale
This response accurately describes the core mission of non-directive genetic counseling, which is to provide education regarding the diagnosis, explore the etiology (probable cause), discuss the prognosis, and review all available management and reproductive options. This comprehensive approach empowers the clients to make an informed, autonomous decision that aligns with their personal and ethical framework.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Moving the client to the operating room for a cesarean section is an invasive, definitive intervention reserved for cases where conservative measures have failed to resolve non-reassuring fetal status or in the case of a fetal heart rate category III tracing. This is not the priority initial action for uteroplacental insufficiency, which can often be corrected by less invasive maneuvers to optimize fetal oxygenation. The initial steps are less aggressive.
Choice B rationale
Administering oxygen to the mother via a non-rebreather face mask at a high flow rate (e.g., 8-10 L/min) can mildly increase the partial pressure of oxygen in the maternal blood, thus potentially improving the amount of oxygen crossing the placenta to the fetus. While often a component of intrauterine resuscitation, optimizing the maternal-fetal blood flow via position change is typically the initial, most effective action.
Choice C rationale
Turning the client to the left or right lateral position (or asking the client to turn) is the priority action because it relieves compression of the vena cava and aorta by the gravid uterus. This action, known as intrauterine resuscitation, increases venous return to the heart, thus enhancing cardiac output, improving placental perfusion, and subsequently increasing oxygen delivery to the fetus, which is compromised in uteroplacental insufficiency.
Choice D rationale
Increasing the rate of a non-glucose-containing intravenous fluid such as Lactated Ringer's or normal saline (a bolus) is an intervention to improve maternal hydration and expand intravascular volume, which can help increase placental perfusion if hypotension is contributing to the insufficiency. However, volume expansion is generally secondary to the position change, which more directly addresses the mechanical compression causing decreased blood flow.
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