The nurse is caring for a client with a Stage 2 pressure injury. Which assessment(s) would the nurse expect to observe? (Select all that apply)
intact blister
undermining
presence of slough
blanchable erythema
presence of granulation tissue
The Correct Answer is A
A. intact blister. A Stage 2 pressure injury presents as partial-thickness loss of the dermis or as a serum-filled bulla. The epidermis may be non-intact or appear as a tense, fluid-filled structure without deeper tissue involvement. This stage is characterized by a pink, painful wound bed without evidence of necrotic tissue.
B. undermining. This clinical finding involves the destruction of tissue under the intact skin along the wound margins, typically seen in Stage 3 or 4 injuries. Stage 2 lesions are superficial and do not extend into the subcutaneous fat or deeper fascia. The presence of such cavities indicates a more advanced degree of tissue destruction.
C. presence of slough. The identification of yellow, tan, or green devitalized tissue excludes the diagnosis of a Stage 2 injury by definition. Slough indicates a full-thickness wound where the depth of the injury is obscured by inflammatory exudate. Stage 2 wounds are defined by a clean, red-to-pink viable wound bed.
D. blanchable erythema. Skin that turns pale upon the application of pressure represents a reactive hyperemic response rather than a structural injury. This physiological state indicates intact microcirculation and does not meet the criteria for a pressure injury. Stage 2 involves a break in the skin or a persistent blister.
E. presence of granulation tissue. This beefy red, granular substance appears during the proliferative phase of healing in full-thickness wounds. Since Stage 2 injuries only involve the epidermis and partial dermis, they heal by re-epithelialization rather than the formation of granulation tissue. Its presence suggests a deeper, Stage 3 or 4 ulcer.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. At bedtime: Glipizide is a sulfonylurea that stimulates insulin secretion from the pancreatic beta cells. Administering this medication at bedtime without subsequent caloric intake would put the client at severe risk for nocturnal hypoglycemia. It is designed to manage postprandial glucose elevations rather than fasting levels during sleep.
B. As needed: Glipizide is a maintenance medication for Type 2 diabetes mellitus and is not intended for PRN or "as needed" use. It requires consistent daily dosing to maintain stable glycemic control and prevent hyperglycemia. Using it sporadically would result in erratic blood glucose fluctuations and poor metabolic management.
C. Before a meal: The abbreviation "ac" stands for the Latin "ante cibum," which translates to "before meals." Glipizide should typically be administered 30 minutes prior to a meal to allow the medication to stimulate insulin release in synchronization with food absorption. This timing effectively minimizes the risk of postprandial hyperglycemia.
D. With scheduled morning medications: While it may be given in the morning, the specific "ac" instruction takes precedence over a general morning schedule. If morning medications are given after breakfast, the glipizide would be less effective and potentially dangerous. The relationship to food intake is the critical factor for this secretagogue.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Document the refusal and its management: Documentation is a legal requirement that follows the intervention but does not constitute the immediate priority. The nurse must first engage in clinical inquiry to address the client's concerns or misconceptions. Recording the event occurs only after all attempts at education and assessment are exhausted.
B. Notify the healthcare provider of the patient's refusal: While the prescriber must eventually be informed of deviations from the treatment plan, this is not the first step. The nurse should first gather pertinent data regarding the refusal to provide a comprehensive report. Immediate notification without assessment is premature and inefficient.
C. Speak with the client to determine the reason for the refusal: The primary responsibility is to respect patient autonomy while ensuring informed consent or refusal. Identifying specific barriers, such as fear of side effects or lack of understanding, allows the nurse to provide targeted education. This assessment phase is essential for therapeutic communication.
D. Identify to the client the irrational reason for refusing part of the therapy: Labeling a patient's concerns as "irrational" is non-therapeutic and damages the nurse-client relationship. It violates the principle of respect and may increase the client's defensiveness. Education should be objective and supportive rather than judgmental or confrontational.
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