The nurse is caring for a pregnant client during the first prenatal visit.
Prior to obtaining prenatal lab work the client asks the nurse, "Why do I need a rubella screening? I was already vaccinated.”. What explanation by the nurse is most accurate?
Screening determines if the client is a candidate for rubella immunization during pregnancy.
Screening will determine the risk of teratogenic effects to the fetus from prior vaccination.
Screening will determine if the client is a carrier of the rubella virus from previous exposure.
Screening determines adequate immunity to protect the client and fetus from the virus.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale
While it is true that screening identifies non-immune clients, the rubella vaccine is a live attenuated virus and is strictly contraindicated during pregnancy due to the theoretical risk of congenital rubella syndrome. Immunization can only be administered in the immediate postpartum period, and the client must be advised to avoid pregnancy for at least 28 days following the injection. Therefore, screening does not determine candidacy for immunization during the current pregnancy but for future protection.
Choice B rationale
The rubella screening, or rubella titer, measures the level of IgG antibodies in the maternal serum. It is used to determine current immunity levels rather than assessing the risk of teratogenic effects from a vaccination that occurred in the past. Previous vaccination is intended to provide long-term protection, and the test simply verifies if those antibodies are still present at a functional level of 1: or greater to protect the developing fetus from future exposure.
Choice C rationale
Rubella is not characterized by a carrier state in the way that some other viral or bacterial infections are. A person is either susceptible, acutely infected, or immune. The screening is designed to detect the presence of protective antibodies, not to identify the client as a chronic carrier of the virus. Understanding this distinction is important for accurate clinical interpretation of the lab results and for providing the client with correct information about their health status.
Choice D rationale
The rubella titer is performed to confirm that the client has a sufficient level of antibodies to prevent an active infection if exposed to the virus during pregnancy. Maternal rubella infection, especially during the first trimester, carries a high risk of causing congenital rubella syndrome, which can lead to deafness, cataracts, and cardiac defects in the newborn. A titer of 1: or higher indicates immunity, while a lower titer suggests the client is non-immune and vulnerable.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","D","E"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Consuming adequate calories as determined by a dietitian is a primary goal for discharging a client with anorexia nervosa. This indicates that the client is compliant with the nutritional rehabilitation plan and is capable of maintaining a caloric intake sufficient for metabolic needs. Stabilization of eating patterns and the ability to self-regulate intake without purging or restriction are essential benchmarks. It reflects an improvement in the behavioral aspects of the eating disorder and physiological stability.
Choice B rationale
A body mass index (BMI) of 15 is significantly below the healthy range (18.5 to 24.9 kg/m) and indicates that the client remains severely underweight and malnourished. Discharging a client with such a low BMI would be unsafe as they remain at high risk for cardiac arrhythmias, electrolyte imbalances, and organ failure. Clinical guidelines usually require a higher BMI, typically at least 17 or more, along with weight stability, before considering a transition to outpatient care.
Choice C rationale
Dependency on a parent for basic needs indicates a lack of developmental autonomy and poor coping mechanisms, which are often underlying psychological issues in anorexia nervosa. Discharge readiness requires the client to demonstrate age-appropriate independence and the ability to manage self-care. Continued dependency suggests that the psychological triggers and family dynamics contributing to the disorder have not been adequately addressed. The client needs to show functional improvement and emotional resilience before leaving an intensive treatment environment.
Choice D rationale
The statement regarding not being perfect indicates a positive shift in the cognitive distortions and perfectionism frequently associated with anorexia nervosa. Acknowledging that perfection is unattainable suggests that the client is developing healthier thought patterns and reducing the internal pressure that drives restrictive eating. Cognitive behavioral progress is a critical metric for discharge, as it reduces the likelihood of relapse. This shift in mindset shows the client is engaging effectively with psychotherapy and emotional processing.
Choice E rationale
A blood pressure of 108/74 mm Hg is within the normal range (systolic 90 to 120 and diastolic 60 to 80), indicating cardiovascular stability. Clients with active anorexia nervosa often suffer from bradycardia and hypotension due to starvation and reduced metabolic rate. Achieving a stable, normal blood pressure suggests that the client’s autonomic nervous system and fluid volume are recovering. This physiological normalization is a necessary prerequisite for discharge to ensure the client can safely transition to a lower level of care.
Correct Answer is ["A","C","D","E"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Cocaine is a potent vasoconstrictor that causes a rapid increase in maternal blood pressure and significant uterine artery constriction. This sudden vascular compromise can lead to premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall, known as placenta abruption. This condition is a life-threatening emergency for both the mother and the fetus due to the risk of severe hemorrhage and impaired fetal oxygenation caused by the drug's sympathetic nervous system stimulation.
Choice B rationale
Erythroblastosis fetalis is a hemolytic disease of the newborn that occurs due to Rh incompatibility between the mother and the fetus. It involves the maternal immune system producing antibodies that attack fetal red blood cells. There is no known scientific or physiological link between the use of cocaine and the development of Rh isoimmunization or hemolytic anemia. This condition is strictly related to blood group antigens rather than substance abuse or maternal vasoconstriction.
Choice C rationale
The systemic effects of cocaine involve the inhibition of norepinephrine reuptake at nerve endings, leading to a state of chronic sympathetic overactivity. This results in persistent vasoconstriction and increased peripheral vascular resistance, which manifests as gestational hypertension. The cardiovascular strain placed on the mother by regular cocaine use increases the likelihood of developing preeclampsia or other hypertensive disorders of pregnancy, which can have devastating effects on maternal organ systems and placental perfusion.
Choice D rationale
Cocaine use during pregnancy causes chronic intrauterine hypoxia due to decreased blood flow through the placental bed. When the fetus is deprived of adequate oxygen and essential nutrients over a long period, growth is significantly restricted. This often results in the infant being small for gestational age at birth. The vasoconstrictive properties of the drug limit the transfer of glucose and amino acids, which are necessary for normal fetal weight gain and development.
Choice E rationale
Substance abuse is frequently associated with various lifestyle factors, including poor nutritional intake. Cocaine acts as a powerful appetite suppressant, which often leads to the mother neglecting her caloric and vitamin requirements. Inadequate maternal nutrition further compounds the risks to the fetus, as the lack of essential building blocks like folic acid, iron, and protein can lead to anemia, low birth weight, and other developmental complications during the gestation period.
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