The nurse is caring for a pregnant client with preeclampsia who is receiving IV magnesium sulfate. The nurses assess the following symptoms: -Respiratory rate of 10 breaths/min
Urine output 25ml during the last hour
Absent deep tendon reflexes
What medication should the nurse prepare to administer?
Hydralazine
Methylergonovine
Narcan
Calcium gluconate
The Correct Answer is D
A. Hydralazine is an antihypertensive used to manage severe hypertension in preeclampsia. While controlling blood pressure is essential in preeclampsia, hydralazine does not reverse the toxic effects of magnesium. Administering hydralazine in this context would not address the immediate life-threatening neuromuscular or respiratory depression.
B. Methylergonovine is a uterotonic agent used to treat postpartum hemorrhage by stimulating uterine contractions. It has no effect on magnesium toxicity and is unrelated to seizure prophylaxis or respiratory function. Administering this drug would not correct the client’s critical condition.
C. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist used to reverse opioid-induced respiratory depression. Magnesium sulfate toxicity is not opioid-related, so Narcan would not improve respiratory rate, restore reflexes, or address neuromuscular blockade caused by magnesium.
D. Calcium gluconate is the specific antidote for magnesium sulfate toxicity. It works by antagonizing the effects of magnesium at the neuromuscular junction, restoring deep tendon reflexes, and improving respiratory muscle function. Administration is intravenous, slow, and under close monitoring. Simultaneously, the magnesium infusion should be stopped immediately to prevent further accumulation. After stabilization, the nurse should monitor vital signs, urine output, reflexes, and serum magnesium levels to ensure safe recovery.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Pancreatic enzyme replacement therapy (PERT) is not tied to the development of diabetes. While CF-related diabetes can occur due to progressive pancreatic damage, enzyme therapy is required much earlier to address malabsorption caused by blocked pancreatic ducts. Waiting for diabetes to develop would allow continued nutrient deficiencies, poor weight gain, and fat-soluble vitamin deficiencies (A, D, E, K).
B. Children with CF do not digest fats more efficiently than carbohydrates. In fact, fat digestion is particularly impaired because pancreatic lipase is insufficient due to duct obstruction. Proteins and carbohydrates are also affected to a lesser extent. PERT provides a mix of lipase, amylase, and protease to compensate for this deficiency and ensure adequate nutrient absorption.
C. CF does not cause an overproduction of digestive enzymes. On the contrary, thick mucus blocks pancreatic ducts, preventing enzymes from reaching the intestines. This blockage leads to enzyme deficiency in the gastrointestinal tract, resulting in malabsorption, steatorrhea (fatty stools), abdominal bloating, and poor growth.
D. In CF, mutations in the CFTR gene lead to thick, sticky mucus production in multiple organs, including the pancreas. This mucus obstructs the pancreatic ducts, preventing digestive enzymes such as lipase, amylase, and protease from reaching the small intestine. Without these enzymes, fats, proteins, and carbohydrates are incompletely digested, causing nutrient malabsorption, fatty stools, and poor weight gain. PERT replaces the missing enzymes, allowing proper digestion and absorption of nutrients, improving growth, and reducing gastrointestinal symptoms. Regular dosing with meals and snacks is essential to optimize nutrient absorption and support normal growth and development in children with CF.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. A threatened miscarriage is characterized by vaginal bleeding, mild cramping, and a closed cervix, but the fetus is still viable with a detectable heartbeat. In this case, the fetal heartbeat is absent, making a threatened miscarriage unlikely.
B. An incomplete miscarriage occurs when some products of conception have been expelled while others remain in the uterus. It is usually accompanied by heavy bleeding, cramping, and an open cervix. This client has a closed cervix and no bleeding, ruling out an incomplete miscarriage.
C. A missed miscarriage occurs when the fetus has died in utero but has not been expelled. The client may have no symptoms—no bleeding or cramping—and the cervix remains closed. Ultrasound confirms the absence of fetal cardiac activity, which matches this presentation. Missed miscarriages often require medical or surgical management to prevent complications such as infection or coagulopathy.
D. An inevitable miscarriage is indicated by vaginal bleeding, cramping, and cervical dilation, suggesting that miscarriage is in progress and cannot be prevented. Since this client has a closed cervix and no active bleeding, an inevitable miscarriage is unlikely.
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