The nurse is caring for a primigravida at 42 weeks' gestation with the following assessment data recorded in the patient's record: Cervix 2 cm dilated, Cervix 70
Amniotomy should be implemented.
The mother is in the second stage of labor.
The fetus is demonstrating signs of distress.
Cesarean birth is anticipated.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale
Amniotomy is the artificial rupture of membranes, a procedure to induce or augment labor. With the cervix being only 2 cm dilated and 70% effaced, the cervix is considered unfavorable, and performing an amniotomy with an unfavorable cervix may increase the risk of infection and has a higher chance of a failed induction, hence it is not the best choice.
Choice B rationale
The second stage of labor begins with complete cervical dilation (10 cm) and ends with the birth of the baby. The patient's cervix is only 2 cm dilated, indicating she is still in the latent or active phase of the first stage of labor, making this interpretation incorrect based on the current cervical assessment.
Choice C rationale
The provided assessment data focuses on cervical status and gestational age. The fetal status is not documented, thus fetal distress cannot be determined or inferred from a 2 cm dilated and 70% effaced cervix at 42 weeks' gestation. Fetal distress is identified via nonreassuring FHR patterns.
Choice D rationale
The client is a primigravida at 42 weeks' gestation with an unfavorable cervix (only 2 cm dilated and 70% effaced). The combination of post-term pregnancy and failed cervical ripening or inability to achieve adequate labor progression often leads to failed induction, for which a Cesarean birth is often the eventual anticipated outcome.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Requesting oxytocin to strengthen the contractions may be necessary if the contractions are indeed hypotonic (weak). However, with a high resting uterine tone (20-25 mm Hg; normal 5-15 mm Hg) and frequent, short contractions, this pattern suggests hypertonic uterine dysfunction, and oxytocin is contraindicated as it would worsen the uterine hyperstimulation and compromise fetal oxygenation.
Choice B rationale
Advising the client to simply be patient is inappropriate for this dysfunctional labor pattern. This pattern, characterized by short, frequent contractions with high resting tone, is ineffective and often causes significant pain and maternal fatigue without adequate cervical change. Interventions are required to address the uterine dysfunction.
Choice C rationale
This labor pattern is consistent with hypertonic uterine dysfunction, where the baseline uterine tone is elevated, preventing proper uterine muscle relaxation and adequate placental perfusion. The best intervention is to promote uterine rest and relaxation, often achieved through therapeutic rest (e.g., pain medication, sedation, or a change in environment) to allow the dysfunctional pattern to resolve.
Choice D rationale
Ambulation and physical activity are typically encouraged for hypotonic (weak, infrequent) labor to stimulate stronger contractions. In cases of hypertonic uterine dysfunction, movement may increase pain and does not promote the necessary uterine rest and relaxation to normalize the contractile pattern, potentially leading to further maternal exhaustion and fetal compromise.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Labetalol is a combined α and β-adrenergic blocker and is a preferred first-line agent for managing chronic or gestational hypertension in pregnancy. It acts by reducing systemic vascular resistance and mildly decreasing heart rate, effectively lowering blood pressure while minimizing risks to the developing fetus due to its established safety profile.
Choice B rationale
Digoxin is a cardiac glycoside primarily used to treat heart failure and control the ventricular rate in atrial fibrillation. While not a primary antihypertensive, it may be used in pregnant clients with pre-existing heart failure, which can complicate chronic hypertension, making its prescription possible in this client population.
Choice C rationale
Warfarin, an oral anticoagulant, is a teratogen classified as Pregnancy Category D, as it readily crosses the placenta and is associated with the Warfarin embryopathy (nasal hypoplasia, stippled epiphyses) in the first trimester, and fetal hemorrhage, making it generally contraindicated in pregnancy. Low molecular weight heparin is preferred.
Choice D rationale
Nitroglycerin, a potent vasodilator, is a medication that can be used intravenously to quickly manage severe, acute hypertensive crises in pregnant clients, although it's not a medication for chronic daily use. Its rapid action and control of blood pressure make it a potential, albeit specialized, option in obstetric emergencies.
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