The nurse is planning education for a client with a new beta-blocker prescription. Which information should the nurse plan to include in the education?
Hold medication if heart rate is greater than 60 bpm.
Report signs of liver damage, including dark-colored urine.
Stop taking this medication if you experience dizziness.
Sexual dysfunction may occur with this medication
The Correct Answer is D
A. Hold medication if heart rate is greater than 60 bpm: Beta-blockers are typically held if the heart rate is less than 60 bpm, not greater. Administering the medication when the heart rate is above 60 bpm is generally safe, so this instruction is inaccurate.
B. Report signs of liver damage, including dark-colored urine: While some medications can affect liver function, beta-blockers rarely cause liver toxicity. Monitoring for liver damage is not a standard teaching point for typical beta-blocker use unless the client has preexisting liver disease.
C. Stop taking this medication if you experience dizziness: Abruptly stopping beta-blockers can precipitate rebound hypertension or tachycardia, which can be dangerous. Clients should be instructed to notify their healthcare provider rather than independently discontinuing the medication.
D. Sexual dysfunction may occur with this medication: Beta-blockers can cause side effects such as erectile dysfunction or decreased libido. Educating the client about potential sexual side effects helps set expectations and encourages open discussion with the healthcare provider if symptoms develop.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Treatment for acute myocardial infarction: Apixaban is an oral anticoagulant used to prevent clot formation. It is not indicated as a primary treatment for acute myocardial infarction, although it may be used in certain patients with atrial fibrillation or thromboembolic risk.
B. Prevention of pulmonary embolism: Apixaban is indicated for the prevention and treatment of venous thromboembolism, including deep vein thrombosis and pulmonary embolism. It inhibits factor Xa, reducing the formation of blood clots in high-risk patients.
C. Treatment for chronic hypertension: Apixaban does not lower blood pressure and is not used to treat hypertension. Its anticoagulant effect targets clotting pathways rather than vascular resistance.
D. Prevention of renal failure: Apixaban has no direct effect on kidney function and is not used to prevent renal failure. Its role is limited to anticoagulation and reducing thromboembolic events.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Decreased activity tolerance: A reduction in activity tolerance would indicate worsening cardiovascular status rather than a therapeutic effect. Effective antianginal therapy should improve, not diminish, the client’s ability to perform physical activities without pain.
B. Decreased nausea and vomiting: While some antianginal medications may reduce side effects such as nausea, this is not a primary therapeutic goal. The main purpose of antianginal therapy is to relieve myocardial ischemia and prevent angina episodes.
C. Decreased occurrence of headaches: Headaches can occur as a side effect of certain antianginal drugs, like nitrates, but a decrease in headaches does not indicate improved angina control. Therapeutic effectiveness is measured by symptom relief, not by side effect reduction.
D. Decreased episodes of chest pain: A reduction in the frequency, intensity, or duration of angina episodes reflects the desired therapeutic effect of antianginal drugs. This indicates improved myocardial oxygen delivery and better management of ischemic symptoms.
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