A nurse is caring for a group of clients. Click to specify whether anticoagulation therapy is anticipated or not anticipated for each client.
A client with low platelet count
A client with history of hemophilia A
A client with an indwelling epidural catheter
A client diagnosed with pulmonary embolism
A post operative client on bed rest
The Correct Answer is {"A":{"answers":"B"},"B":{"answers":"B"},"C":{"answers":"B"},"D":{"answers":"A"},"E":{"answers":"A"}}
• A client diagnosed with pulmonary embolism: Anticoagulation is standard therapy to prevent clot propagation and reduce the risk of further thromboembolic events. Medications such as heparin or low-molecular-weight heparin are commonly initiated to manage pulmonary embolism. Early anticoagulation improves patient outcomes and reduces mortality.
• A post-operative client on bed rest: Prolonged immobility increases the risk for venous thromboembolism. Anticoagulation may be anticipated as a preventive measure, especially in clients with additional risk factors such as advanced age or comorbidities. Prophylactic therapy reduces the incidence of deep vein thrombosis and pulmonary embolism.
• A client with low platelet count: Anticoagulation increases the risk of bleeding in clients with thrombocytopenia. Low platelet count is a contraindication because these clients are prone to spontaneous bleeding and hemorrhage. Careful evaluation of bleeding risk is required before considering therapy.
• A client with history of hemophilia A: Hemophilia A is a congenital clotting disorder characterized by factor VIII deficiency. Anticoagulation in these clients would exacerbate bleeding tendencies and is contraindicated. Management focuses on preventing and treating bleeding episodes, not clot prevention.
• A client with an indwelling epidural catheter: Anticoagulation is contraindicated in clients with epidural catheters due to the risk of epidural hematoma formation. Hematomas can compress the spinal cord, causing permanent neurological damage. Anticoagulants are withheld until the catheter is safely removed and bleeding risk is minimized.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. I am choosing not to follow the assessment instructions and acknowledge that doing so may be considered a code of conduct violation: Refusing to complete the identity verification could result in a violation of academic or professional integrity policies, which may lead to disciplinary action or invalidation of the assessment.
B. I held up my Chamberlain photo ID badge or any other government, state, or professional photo ID in the webcam view: Completing the identity verification as instructed confirms identity and ensures compliance with assessment security protocols. This action allows the assessment to continue and maintains adherence to institutional and professional standards.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Decreased activity tolerance: A reduction in activity tolerance would indicate worsening cardiovascular status rather than a therapeutic effect. Effective antianginal therapy should improve, not diminish, the client’s ability to perform physical activities without pain.
B. Decreased nausea and vomiting: While some antianginal medications may reduce side effects such as nausea, this is not a primary therapeutic goal. The main purpose of antianginal therapy is to relieve myocardial ischemia and prevent angina episodes.
C. Decreased occurrence of headaches: Headaches can occur as a side effect of certain antianginal drugs, like nitrates, but a decrease in headaches does not indicate improved angina control. Therapeutic effectiveness is measured by symptom relief, not by side effect reduction.
D. Decreased episodes of chest pain: A reduction in the frequency, intensity, or duration of angina episodes reflects the desired therapeutic effect of antianginal drugs. This indicates improved myocardial oxygen delivery and better management of ischemic symptoms.
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