The nurse is planning the care of a client who has been diagnosed with hypertension but who otherwise enjoys good health. When assessing the response to an antihypertensive drug regimen, what blood pressure would be the goal of treatment?

120/80 mm Hg or lower.

Average of two BP readings of 150/80 mm Hg

140/90 mm Hg or lower

156/96 mm Hg or lower

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

A. 120/80 mm Hg or lower:

This blood pressure range is considered normal or optimal for most adults. However, for individuals diagnosed with hypertension, the goal is typically to reduce blood pressure to below 140/90 mm Hg, as maintaining normal blood pressure is not considered a goal for hypertension treatment unless specifically indicated based on individual circumstances.

B. Average of two BP readings of 150/80 mm Hg:

A blood pressure reading of 150/80 mm Hg is elevated and indicates hypertension, especially if consistently elevated across multiple readings. The goal of hypertension treatment is to lower blood pressure to below 140/90 mm Hg, so an average of 150/80 mm Hg would not be considered the goal of treatment.

C. 140/90 mm Hg or lower:

This blood pressure range is commonly recommended as the goal of treatment for individuals with hypertension who otherwise enjoy good health. It represents a balance between effective blood pressure control and minimizing the risk of side effects or complications associated with overly aggressive treatment.

D. 156/96 mm Hg or lower:

While a blood pressure reading of 156/96 mm Hg is elevated and indicates hypertension, the goal of treatment is typically to reduce blood pressure to below 140/90 mm Hg rather than targeting a specific numeric value below 156/96 mm Hg.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. The pain can be severe and sudden at rest: This statement is more characteristic of unstable angina, where chest pain can occur at rest or with minimal exertion and is often severe and unpredictable.

B. The pain persists with rest and organic nitrates: This statement is more indicative of unstable angina or variant (Prinzmetal's) angina. Stable angina typically improves with rest and nitroglycerin (an organic nitrate).

C. The pain usually lasts longer than 20 minutes: Stable angina pain typically lasts for a few minutes (usually less than 5 to 10 minutes) and resolves with rest or nitroglycerin. Pain lasting longer than 20 minutes may indicate an acute coronary syndrome such as unstable angina or myocardial infarction.

D. Exertion and anxiety can trigger the pain: This statement is accurate for stable angina. Exertion, such as physical activity or emotional stress, can trigger anginal pain in individuals with stable angina due to increased oxygen demand by the heart.

A. Furosemide 10mg IV bolus every 12 hours. B. Morphine sulfate 2 mg IV bolus every 2 hr PRN pain C. Laboratory testing of serum potassium upon admission D. 0.9% normal saline IV at 150 mL/hr continuous

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. Furosemide 10mg IV bolus every 12 hours:

Furosemide is a loop diuretic commonly used in heart failure management to reduce fluid overload. The prescribed dose of 10 mg IV bolus every 12 hours is within the typical range for furosemide administration in acute heart failure.

B. Morphine sulfate 2 mg IV bolus every 2 hr PRN pain:

Morphine sulfate is often used in the management of acute pain, including pain associated with myocardial infarction. The prescribed dose of 2 mg IV bolus every 2 hours PRN for pain is appropriate and aligns with standard pain management protocols.

C. Laboratory testing of serum potassium upon admission:

It is common practice to perform laboratory testing, including serum potassium levels, upon admission for clients with acute heart failure, especially if they are receiving diuretics or other medications that can affect electrolyte balance. This prescription is appropriate and necessary for monitoring the client's condition.

D. 0.9% normal saline IV at 150 mL/hr continuous:

This prescription raises a concern because administering 0.9% normal saline at a rate of 150 mL/hr continuously may lead to fluid overload in a client with acute heart failure. The rate of IV fluid administration should be carefully assessed based on the client's fluid status, renal function, and hemodynamic parameters to avoid exacerbating heart failure symptoms.

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The nurse is planning the care of a client who has been diagnosed with hypertension but who otherwise enjoys good health. When assessing the response to an antihypertensive drug regimen, what blood pressure would be the goal of treatment?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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