The nurse is providing care for a client following an appendectomy who developed an abdominal infection. The nurse is administering the first dose of piperacillin. Within 10 minutes of initiating the infusion the client develops an itchy rash on chest and abdomen. Wheezing is noted bilaterally. What action should the nurse take first?
Obtain a set of vital signs
Stop the antibiotic infusion
Notify the healthcare provider
Initiate oxygen via nasal cannula at 2 LPM
The Correct Answer is B
A. Obtain a set of vital signs: While monitoring hemodynamics is essential during an allergic reaction, it is not the immediate priority while the allergen is still entering the bloodstream. Delaying the cessation of the infusion to gather data allows more of the provocative agent to reach systemic circulation. Vital signs are the second step after stopping the trigger.
B. Stop the antibiotic infusion: The client is exhibiting classic signs of a Type 1 hypersensitivity reaction, which can rapidly progress to life-threatening anaphylaxis. The most critical intervention is to immediately terminate the exposure to the offending pharmacological agent. This limits further mast cell degranulation and the systemic release of histamine and leukotrienes.
C. Notify the healthcare provider: Communication with the provider is necessary to obtain orders for epinephrine or antihistamines, but it must follow the physical intervention of stopping the drug. The nurse must prioritize patient safety by halting the infusion before leaving the bedside or picking up the phone. Immediate action prevents further physiological deterioration.
D. Initiate oxygen via nasal cannula at 2 LPM: Oxygen therapy addresses the symptom of wheezing but does not stop the underlying immunological cascade caused by the piperacillin. While respiratory support may be required, it is a supportive measure that follows the removal of the primary allergen. Stopping the infusion is the only action that halts the cause of the distress.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. At bedtime: Glipizide is a sulfonylurea that stimulates insulin secretion from the pancreatic beta cells. Administering this medication at bedtime without subsequent caloric intake would put the client at severe risk for nocturnal hypoglycemia. It is designed to manage postprandial glucose elevations rather than fasting levels during sleep.
B. As needed: Glipizide is a maintenance medication for Type 2 diabetes mellitus and is not intended for PRN or "as needed" use. It requires consistent daily dosing to maintain stable glycemic control and prevent hyperglycemia. Using it sporadically would result in erratic blood glucose fluctuations and poor metabolic management.
C. Before a meal: The abbreviation "ac" stands for the Latin "ante cibum," which translates to "before meals." Glipizide should typically be administered 30 minutes prior to a meal to allow the medication to stimulate insulin release in synchronization with food absorption. This timing effectively minimizes the risk of postprandial hyperglycemia.
D. With scheduled morning medications: While it may be given in the morning, the specific "ac" instruction takes precedence over a general morning schedule. If morning medications are given after breakfast, the glipizide would be less effective and potentially dangerous. The relationship to food intake is the critical factor for this secretagogue.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. No adjustment unless the IV route was used: The route of administration does not negate the necessity for dosage titration in geriatric populations. Intravenous delivery bypasses first-pass metabolism but still relies on hepatic and renal clearance. Pharmacokinetic changes in the elderly affect all systemic pharmacological interventions.
B. A decreased dose due to declining physiological function: Age-related reductions in glomerular filtration rate and hepatic blood flow prolong drug half-life. Accumulation of active metabolites increases the risk of systemic toxicity and adverse drug events. Lowering the total dose ensures plasma concentrations remain within the therapeutic window.
C. An increased dose due to incomplete physiological functioning: Raising the dosage in a client with impaired clearance would lead to dangerous drug accumulation. Incomplete physiological functioning implies a reduced capacity to process and eliminate chemical substances. This action would likely precipitate an overdose or severe side effects.
D. No adjustment as a greater therapeutic response is expected from the elderly client: While elderly clients may be more sensitive to certain drugs, this does not justify maintaining standard doses. A prolonged half-life indicates the drug persists in the bloodstream longer than intended. Adjustments are required to prevent physiological harm regardless of the perceived response.
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