The nurse is teaching the mother of a 2-year-old client how to administer ear drops. The nurse recognizes correct return demonstration by the mother upon observing which technique?
The mother applies the prescribed number of otic drops into a sterile gauze and gently places it into the client's affected ear.
The mother gently pulls the pinna of the ear down and back prior to administering otic drops.
The mother retracts 0.5mL of the otic solution in a syringe prior to administration.
The mother gently holds the tragus of the ear open while administering otic drops.
The Correct Answer is B
A. The mother applies the prescribed number of otic drops into a sterile gauze and gently places it into the client's affected ear: Otic medications must be instilled directly into the external auditory canal to reach the tympanic membrane or infected tissue. Absorbing the medication into gauze prevents the fluid from reaching the target anatomical site. This method results in subtherapeutic dosing and ineffective treatment.
B. The mother gently pulls the pinna of the ear down and back prior to administering otic drops: In children younger than 3 years, the external auditory canal is relatively short and curves upward. Pulling the pinna downward and backward straightens the canal to ensure the medication flows freely to the eardrum. This anatomical adjustment is essential for proper delivery in pediatric patients.
C. The mother retracts 0.5mL of the otic solution in a syringe prior to administration: Ear drops should be administered using the calibrated dropper provided with the specific medication container. Using a syringe for measurement can lead to dosing errors and potential trauma if the tip enters the canal. Precise drop counts are the standard for otic pharmacological safety.
D. The mother gently holds the tragus of the ear open while administering otic drops: The tragus should be gently massaged or pressed after instillation, not held open during the process. Pressing the tragus helps pump the medication deeper into the ear canal. Holding it open during administration does not provide any mechanical advantage for the distribution of the drops.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. To maintain moist wound healing: Hydrocolloid dressings contain gel-forming agents that react with wound exudate to create a protective, moist environment. This occlusive seal prevents tissue dehydration and promotes autolytic debridement by the body’s own enzymes. Maintaining moisture is critical for facilitating faster epithelialization and reducing pain at the site.
B. To create enzymatic debridement: Enzymatic debridement requires the application of external chemical agents, such as collagenase, to actively break down necrotic tissue. Hydrocolloids facilitate autolytic debridement by trapping endogenous moisture but do not contain extrinsic enzymes. They support the body’s natural processes rather than providing a chemical catalyst.
C. To absorb excessive wound drainage: Hydrocolloids have limited absorptive capacity and are unsuitable for heavily draining or "copious" wounds. Excessive exudate will cause the dressing to lose its seal or cause periwound maceration. They are best utilized for wounds with minimal to moderate drainage where moisture retention is desired.
D. To directly reduce bioburden (bacteria count): These dressings are not inherently antimicrobial and do not contain silver or iodine to kill pathogens. In fact, their occlusive nature can promote anaerobic bacterial growth if an active infection is present. They are primarily used for clean, granulating wounds rather than infected ones.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Dizziness: This is a common and often transient side effect of buprenorphine, especially during the induction phase of treatment. While it requires monitoring for patient safety and fall prevention, it does not typically constitute an acute clinical emergency. It is an expected pharmacological reaction to the initiation of therapy.
B. Headache: Cephalalgia is one of the most frequently reported side effects of sublingual buprenorphine/naloxone. It is usually manageable with non-opioid analgesics and does not indicate a failure of the induction process. It does not require immediate notification of the provider unless it is severe or neurological.
C. Muscle cramps: The presence of muscle cramps, along with other symptoms like diaphoresis or tachycardia, suggests that the client is experiencing precipitated withdrawal. Buprenorphine has a high affinity for mu-receptors and can displace full opioid agonists. This indicates the induction timing or dosage may need immediate medical adjustment.
D. Blood pressure of 126/89: This blood pressure reading represents a stable hemodynamic state and is not indicative of acute distress or severe withdrawal. While the diastolic pressure is at the high end of normal, it does not warrant an emergency call. It does not reflect the systemic instability of precipitated withdrawal.
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