The nurse is reinforcing discharge teaching with a client about a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
"I need to limit my sun exposure and wear sunscreen while on this medication."
"I should limit my fluid intake while taking this medication."
"My blood pressure will increase while I am taking this medication."
"I should eat a diet low in potassium while taking this medication."
The Correct Answer is A
A. "I need to limit my sun exposure and wear sunscreen while on this medication.": Furosemide is known to cause photosensitivity reactions, making the skin more susceptible to severe sunburns and rashes. Clients should be educated to practice sun safety, including the use of protective clothing and high-SPF sunscreen. This statement demonstrates an understanding of the dermatological risks associated with loop diuretics.
B. "I should limit my fluid intake while taking this medication.": Unless the client has a specific fluid restriction due to heart or kidney failure, they should maintain adequate hydration to prevent dehydration. Furosemide promotes significant diuresis, and excessive restriction can lead to severe volume depletion and hypotension. The medication is designed to remove excess fluid, not necessarily restrict intake.
C. "My blood pressure will increase while I am taking this medication.": Furosemide typically causes a decrease in blood pressure by reducing the total circulating fluid volume. It is often used as an antihypertensive agent to manage fluid-related hypertension. A client expecting a blood pressure increase does not understand the primary hemodynamic effect of the drug.
D. "I should eat a diet low in potassium while taking this medication.": Furosemide is a potassium-wasting diuretic that increases the excretion of potassium in the distal convoluted tubule. Clients usually require a high-potassium diet or supplements to prevent hypokalemia and associated cardiac arrhythmias. A low-potassium diet would exacerbate the risk of a dangerous electrolyte deficiency.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. The oliguric phase lasts for 2 days.: The duration of this phase is typically 10 to 14 days, though it can persist for several weeks. A 2-day timeframe is insufficient for the significant renal parenchymal recovery required to transition to the diuretic phase. Prolonged oliguria is associated with a poorer prognosis for the restoration of baseline renal function.
B. The oliguric phase begins within 1 month of the injury.: This phase typically manifests within 1 to 7 days of the initial insulting event to the kidneys. A delay of 1 month would be inconsistent with the clinical progression of acute kidney injury. Rapid onset of decreased urine output is a hallmark of early stage renal tubular compromise.
C. The client's urine output is less than 400 mL per 24 hours.: Oliguria is clinically defined as a total daily urine volume insufficient to excrete metabolic waste products effectively. This reduction in output results from a severely diminished glomerular filtration rate and cast formation obstructing the renal tubules. Monitoring for this specific volume threshold is essential for diagnosing the severity of the injury.
D. The client's BUN and creatinine decreases during this phase.: Blood urea nitrogen and serum creatinine levels rise significantly during the oliguric phase due to the lack of renal clearance. The accumulation of these nitrogenous wastes leads to the clinical syndrome of uremia. Decreasing levels are only expected once the client enters the recovery phase of the disease.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Reduce the federal government's spending on community health programs.: The Healthy People 2030 initiative is focused on improving public health outcomes through evidence-based objectives rather than fiscal budget reduction. While efficient resource allocation is a byproduct, the primary mission is to promote health equity and wellness. The project serves as a roadmap for health improvement, not a cost-cutting tool.
B. Identify and implement plans to improve health.: Healthy People 2030 provides a comprehensive set of national goals designed to guide health promotion and disease prevention efforts. It establishes measurable targets to help communities and providers address the most significant threats to public health. This data-driven framework allows for the implementation of specific strategies to enhance well-being.
C. Focus solely on decreasing rates of chronic illness in older adults.: The scope of Healthy People 2030 encompasses all age groups, from infants to the elderly, to improve health across the entire lifespan. While geriatric health is a component, the initiative also addresses maternal health, adolescent development, and environmental safety. It is a multi-generational strategy for national health improvement.
D. Strive for 2,030 fewer deaths in the U.S. per year: The "2030" in the title refers to the target year for achieving the decade's health objectives, not a specific numerical goal for mortality reduction. The initiative sets hundreds of varied targets across multiple health domains rather than a single mortality figure. Its success is measured by overall improvements in health indicators and equity.
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