The nurse is reviewing the chart of a 6-week-postpartum client who is being assessed at the obstetrician's office.
The assessment reveals that the client's uterus is enlarged and soft and the client is experiencing vaginal bleeding.
The nurse suspects the client has which of the following conditions?
Cervical laceration.
Uterine subinvolution.
Clotting deficiency.
Placenta accreta.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale
A cervical laceration typically presents with bright red vaginal bleeding immediately following delivery, often when the uterus is firm and fundus height is normal. Although bleeding can continue, this diagnosis does not account for the primary assessment findings of a simultaneously enlarged and soft (boggy) uterus at six weeks postpartum. The soft, enlarged uterus is the classic sign of ineffective uterine contractility and is inconsistent with an isolated cervical tear.
Choice B rationale
Uterine subinvolution is the failure of the uterus to return to its normal non-pregnant size and condition (involution) by the six-week postpartum check-up. The classic signs are an enlarged, soft (boggy) uterus that remains palpable above the pelvis, and prolonged, irregular, or excessive vaginal bleeding. This failure is often due to retained placental fragments or infection, which prevent the effective myometrial contraction necessary for involution, directly matching the client's assessment findings.
Choice C rationale
A clotting deficiency would cause generalized bleeding (e.g., petechiae, ecchymosis, bleeding from other sites), and postpartum hemorrhage would be severe and uncontrolled, irrespective of the uterus's condition. While abnormal bleeding is present, the specific finding of a soft, enlarged uterus directs the suspicion to a local uterine issue—failure of involution—rather than a systemic hematologic disorder as the primary underlying cause of the bleeding.
Choice D rationale
Placenta accreta involves abnormal placental adherence and is a primary cause of immediate, severe postpartum hemorrhage due to the inability of the uterus to contract effectively after placental separation. While the resultant failure of contraction causes a boggy uterus, this is an acute issue resolved in the delivery room; by six weeks postpartum, the presentation is chronic, making subinvolution (the chronic failed healing process) the more accurate diagnosis.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
The Babinski's reflex, or plantar reflex, is tested by stroking the sole of the foot from the heel up to the toes. A positive reflex in an infant or young child is characterized by dorsiflexion of the big toe and fanning out of the other toes. This is considered a normal primitive reflex in newborns and infants, indicating an immature corticospinal tract, and therefore does not suggest a problem with the central nervous system unless it persists past 12 to 18 months of age.
Choice B rationale
The positive Babinski's reflex in a newborn is a physiological neurological finding. It reflects the incomplete myelination of the pyramidal tract (corticospinal tract), which is responsible for controlling voluntary movement. As the nervous system matures and myelination is completed, this reflex should disappear, typically between 12 and 18 months of age. Prior to this timeframe, no intervention is required as it is expected.
Choice C rationale
A seizure disorder is generally characterized by abnormal, rhythmic electrical activity in the brain, leading to clinical manifestations like involuntary muscle contractions, changes in consciousness, or behavior. While a neurological assessment is crucial, the positive Babinski's reflex is a normal, expected finding in a newborn, not a specific sign or indicator of an underlying seizure predisposition or active seizure disorder; other signs would be more pertinent.
Choice D rationale
Hypoglycemia in a newborn is defined as a low plasma glucose concentration (e.g., typically <40-50 mg/dL) and can cause nonspecific neurological signs such as jitteriness, lethargy, or poor feeding. However, the positive Babinski's reflex is a normal developmental reflex, not a sign specifically associated with metabolic disturbances like hypoglycemia; therefore, a blood glucose request isn't directly indicated by this reflex alone.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
A fundus located to the right side of the abdomen (a lateral deviation) and potentially higher than expected is the classic sign of a distended bladder. A full bladder physically displaces the uterus from its normal midline, contracted position, which also hinders effective uterine muscle contraction (atony), increasing the risk of postpartum hemorrhage. The first appropriate, least invasive action is to ask the client to empty her bladder.
Choice B rationale
Straight-catheterizing the client immediately is an invasive procedure and is generally reserved for situations where the client is unable to void voluntarily after other measures, like position changes or running water, have been attempted. It is not the initial, least-risk intervention for a displaced fundus, as the client may be able to void naturally.
Choice C rationale
Calling the client's primary health care provider for direction is unnecessary as the nurse's assessment findings point clearly to a common, manageable postpartum issue: bladder distension causing uterine displacement. The appropriate, evidence-based nursing protocol is to first attempt to have the client void spontaneously to correct the displacement.
Choice D rationale
Straight-catheterizing the client for half of her urine volume is not a standard procedure. If catheterization becomes necessary because the client cannot void, the goal is to fully empty the bladder to relieve the pressure and allow the uterus to contract properly. Only complete bladder emptying will effectively resolve the uterine displacement and reduce hemorrhage risk.
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