The patient was taking metformin before this hospitalization.
To facilitate better glucose control, the patient has been switched to insulin therapy while hospitalized.
The patient asks the nurse why it is so important to time meals with the insulin injection and to give him an example of a long-acting insulin.
The nurse will tell the patient that an example of a long-acting insulin is:
Insulin glulisine.
Insulin isophane suspension (NPH).
Insulin detemir.
Insulin aspart.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale
Insulin glulisine is a rapid-acting insulin analog. Its onset of action is typically 10 to 15 minutes, with a peak effect in about one hour. This makes it suitable for use immediately before or with a meal to manage the postprandial glucose spike, but it does not provide the prolonged glucose-lowering effect characteristic of long-acting insulins.
Choice B rationale
Insulin isophane suspension, also known as NPH insulin, is an intermediate-acting insulin. It has a slower onset of action than rapid or short-acting insulins and provides glucose control for a longer duration, typically up to 18 hours. However, its duration is shorter than that of true long-acting insulins, and it has a distinct peak effect.
Choice C rationale
Insulin detemir is a long-acting insulin analog. It is designed to provide a steady, peakless, and prolonged glucose-lowering effect for up to 24 hours. Its mechanism involves binding to albumin in the bloodstream, which slows its absorption and breakdown, ensuring a continuous and stable basal insulin level.
Choice D rationale
Insulin aspart is a rapid-acting insulin analog. Similar to insulin glulisine, it has a rapid onset of action, typically within 10 to 20 minutes, and a peak effect around one to three hours. It is used to cover the glucose increase from meals and is not an example of a long-acting insulin, which provides basal coverage.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Clonidine is a centrally acting alpha-2 adrenergic agonist. While it is an effective antihypertensive, it has been associated with adverse effects on the liver, including hepatitis and elevated liver enzymes. For a patient with a history of cirrhosis, which involves irreversible liver damage and impaired function, a drug with potential hepatotoxicity is a poor choice as it could worsen the underlying liver disease.
Choice B rationale
Prazosin is an alpha-1 adrenergic blocker. It is a suitable choice for this patient. Unlike other antihypertensives, it does not typically cause adverse effects on the liver or pancreas. Its mechanism of action, causing vasodilation by blocking alpha-1 receptors, is not known to exacerbate either pancreatitis or cirrhosis. Therefore, it is a safe and effective option given the patient's co-morbidities.
Choice C rationale
Diltiazem is a calcium channel blocker. While generally safe, some calcium channel blockers have been associated with potential exacerbation of pancreatic inflammation. Although diltiazem is not the most common culprit, its use should be approached with caution in a patient with a history of pancreatitis due to the potential for pancreatic adverse effects. This makes it a less ideal choice compared to a drug with no known pancreatic side effects.
Choice D rationale
Captopril is an ACE inhibitor. This class of drugs has been associated with a potential risk of hepatotoxicity, including cholestatic jaundice and liver failure, although these are rare. In a patient with pre-existing cirrhosis, the liver's ability to metabolize drugs is already compromised, which increases the risk of drug accumulation and potential toxicity. Therefore, it would be a less favorable choice due to the risk of worsening liver function.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Furosemide is a loop diuretic used to treat edema and hypertension. It primarily works by increasing the excretion of salt and water from the body and does not have a direct role in the long-term management of cholesterol levels in patients with coronary artery disease.
Choice B rationale
Statins are the cornerstone of long-term cholesterol management in patients with coronary artery disease. They work by inhibiting HMG-CoA reductase, an enzyme essential for cholesterol synthesis in the liver, thereby lowering LDL ("bad") cholesterol and reducing the risk of cardiovascular events.
Choice C rationale
Nifedipine is a calcium channel blocker used to treat hypertension and angina. While it can improve coronary blood flow, it does not directly affect cholesterol levels and is not considered a primary medication for the long-term management of hyperlipidemia.
Choice D rationale
Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication that prevents blood clots. Its role is to reduce the risk of thrombosis in patients with coronary artery disease, but it has no effect on cholesterol metabolism and is not used for the management of lipid levels.
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