The physician prescribes intravenous mannitol for a client with a head injury. The nurse monitors the client for which expected therapeutic outcome of this drug?
Decreased seizure activity
Decreased urinary output
Decreased cerebral metabolism
Decreased cerebral edema
The Correct Answer is D
A. Decreased seizure activity: Mannitol does not have anticonvulsant properties. Seizure activity is managed with antiepileptic medications, not osmotic diuretics. Monitoring for seizure reduction is not a therapeutic goal of mannitol.
B. Decreased urinary output: Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic, which increases urine output to remove fluid from tissues, including the brain. A decrease in urine output would indicate a problem with the drug’s effectiveness or renal function.
C. Decreased cerebral metabolism: Mannitol does not directly reduce cerebral metabolic rate. Its primary action is fluid removal, not altering neuronal metabolism or oxygen consumption.
D. Decreased cerebral edema: Mannitol reduces intracranial pressure by drawing water out of edematous brain tissue into the intravascular space. This decrease in cerebral edema is the expected therapeutic effect and is monitored through neurologic assessments and ICP measurements.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Neurogenic shock: Neurogenic shock results from disruption of sympathetic nervous system pathways, often due to spinal cord injury. It leads to unopposed parasympathetic activity, causing bradycardia, vasodilation, and hypotension. Unlike other shock types, the loss of vascular tone is a hallmark.
B. Cardiogenic shock: Cardiogenic shock stems from pump failure, typically after myocardial infarction, causing hypotension and poor perfusion. Tachycardia is common as a compensatory response, rather than bradycardia. Vasodilation is usually not a primary feature.
C. Septic shock: Septic shock is characterized by systemic vasodilation, hypotension, and often tachycardia due to infection and inflammatory mediator release. Bradycardia is uncommon. Warm, flushed skin may be present initially. Rapid identification and antibiotics are priorities.
D. Hypovolemic shock: Hypovolemic shock is caused by fluid or blood loss, leading to hypotension and tachycardia as compensation. Vasoconstriction occurs to maintain perfusion, not vasodilation. Bradycardia is rare unless decompensation occurs.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Aspirate from the catheter using a 60 ml syringe: Aspiration can introduce infection or damage the catheter if done routinely. It is not the first-line action for slow drainage during peritoneal dialysis. Safer interventions should be attempted first.
B. Flush the catheter with 50 mL of additional dialysate: Flushing may force fluid and increase intra-abdominal pressure, potentially causing discomfort or complications. It is not recommended as an initial step to improve drainage.
C. Advance the catheter 2 to 4 cm further into the peritoneal cavity: Manipulating the catheter manually can increase the risk of trauma or infection. Catheter position is generally fixed, and adjustments should be made only under provider guidance.
D. Reposition the client to facilitate drainage: Changing the client’s position, such as turning from side to side or elevating the head of the bed, often helps the dialysate flow freely. This is a safe and effective first action to relieve slow drainage and prevent complications like fluid retention or abdominal distention.
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