The PMHNP has diagnosed an 8-year-old boy with oppositional defiant disorder (ODD). Which of the following is the most effective treatment?
Family therapy with emphasis on child management skills
Structural family therapy with emphasis on multigenerational projections
Cognitive behavioral therapy for parents and child
Family systems therapy with integrated behavior modification training
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A reason: This is the correct answer. Family therapy focusing on parent management skills is evidence-based and targets the child’s disruptive behaviors through reinforcement, consistent discipline, and skill-building in the family context.
Choice B reason: Structural family therapy emphasizes family organization and multigenerational dynamics. While useful for broader family issues, it is less effective as a primary treatment for ODD behaviors.
Choice C reason: CBT can help children with emotional regulation, but for ODD, the primary evidence supports parent-focused behavioral interventions rather than individual CBT alone.
Choice D reason: Family systems therapy with integrated behavior modification has some merit but is more complex and less empirically supported than parent management training specifically for ODD.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: This is the correct answer. A score of 10 falls within the mild symptom range on the Yale-Brown Obsessive Compulsive Scale (0–7: subclinical, 8–15: mild, 16–23: moderate, 24–31: severe). It indicates that while the patient experiences obsessions and compulsions, they cause only mild interference in daily functioning.
Choice B reason: Moderate symptoms correspond to scores between 16 and 23. The patient’s score of 10 is below this threshold, so moderate symptoms are not indicated.
Choice C reason: Moderate to severe symptoms reflect scores generally from 24 to 31, which is much higher than this patient’s score.
Choice D reason: Severe symptoms are indicated by scores above 31, reflecting extreme impairment. A score of 10 does not meet these criteria.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Panic disorder involves recurrent, unexpected panic attacks that are not consistently triggered by a specific situation, whereas this patient’s panic occurs reliably in response to flying.
Choice B reason: This is correct. The patient exhibits situationally bound panic in response to flying, consistent with a specific phobia, situational type, causing avoidance and functional impairment.
Choice C reason: Acute stress disorder occurs within 4 weeks of a traumatic event and is time-limited, which does not match the chronic pattern seen here.
Choice D reason: Social anxiety disorder is characterized by fear of social scrutiny; the patient’s panic is specific to flying and not social situations.
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