The PMHNP is asked to evaluate a 21-year-old woman with a tear of her anterior cruciate ligament (ACL). The orthopedic surgeon who requested the evaluation says the patient has been in the hospital for 2 days and is scheduled for surgery tomorrow. The patient complains of anxiety about her upcoming surgery. She is afebrile, her heart rate is 95, and her blood pressure is 110/76. She is not currently in pain; her knee pain is controlled by acetaminophen. Which of the following is the most appropriate medication for this patient based on this scenario?
Carbamazepine (Tegretol)
Clonidine (Catapres)
Fluoxetine (Prozac)
Lorazepam (Ativan)
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A reason: Carbamazepine is primarily an anticonvulsant and mood stabilizer. It is not indicated for acute situational anxiety related to preoperative stress.
Choice B reason: Clonidine can reduce sympathetic symptoms but is not first-line for acute anxiety. Its use for situational preoperative anxiety is limited.
Choice C reason: Fluoxetine is an SSRI used for long-term management of anxiety or depressive disorders. It is not effective for acute anxiety in a short-term preoperative context due to delayed onset of therapeutic effects.
Choice D reason: This is correct. Lorazepam is a short-acting benzodiazepine effective for acute situational anxiety. It can be safely used in a controlled hospital setting to alleviate preoperative anxiety and has a rapid onset of action.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: SSRIs are not indicated for cluster headaches. These medications are primarily used to treat depression and anxiety and have minimal effect on the pathophysiology of cluster headaches.
Choice B reason: Diazepam, a benzodiazepine, may help with anxiety or insomnia but is not effective in aborting or preventing cluster headaches.
Choice C reason: This is the correct answer. Cluster headaches are severe, unilateral, stabbing headaches often associated with autonomic symptoms like tearing and nasal congestion. Sumatriptan, a selective serotonin 5-HT1B/1D receptor agonist, is the treatment of choice for acute attacks due to its rapid onset and ability to alleviate pain.
Choice D reason: Naproxen, an NSAID, may be effective for tension-type headaches or migraine prophylaxis but is ineffective for acute cluster headache attacks due to the extreme severity and rapid onset of pain.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Claustrophobia is a relative contraindication; while it may cause discomfort, sedation or open MRI can often be used safely.
Choice B reason: Essential hypertension does not contraindicate MRI; patients can safely undergo imaging with standard precautions.
Choice C reason: Implanted defibrillators (ICDs) and certain pacemakers are absolute contraindications for MRI due to the risk of device malfunction or patient injury from magnetic interference.
Choice D reason: Intrauterine devices do not pose a risk in MRI, and imaging can be safely performed in patients with IUDs.
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