The practical nurse (PN) is reviewing a client's recent ophthalmic screening test results. Findings of optic neuropathy, loss of peripheral vision, and increased intraocular pressure are consistent with which medical condition?
Glaucoma.
Macular edema.
Cataract.
Diabetic retinopathy.
The Correct Answer is A
Glaucoma is a group of eye diseases that damage the optic nerve and cause vision loss. It is often associated with increased intraocular pressure, which can compress the nerve fibers and reduce blood flow to the retina. The most common type of glaucoma, open-angle glaucoma, causes gradual loss of peripheral vision.
The other options are not correct because:
A. Macular edema is a condition that causes swelling and fluid accumulation in the macula, the central part of the retina that is responsible for sharp and detailed vision. It can cause blurred or distorted vision, but it does not affect the optic nerve or the peripheral vision.
B. Cataract is a condition that causes clouding of the lens, which is the transparent structure that focuses light onto the retina. It can cause blurred, dim, or yellowed vision, but it does not affect the optic nerve or the intraocular pressure.
C. Diabetic retinopathy is a complication of diabetes that damages the blood vessels in the retina and causes bleeding, leakage, or scarring. It can cause blurred, fluctuating, or darkened vision, but it does not affect the optic nerve or the intraocular pressure.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
The correct answer is Choice D
Choice A: Excruciating pain
- Rationale: While partial thickness burns can be painful, especially in the first few days, excruciating pain is less likely for a stable patient 3 days post-burn. Pain management is a crucial aspect of burn care, but excruciating pain might indicate deeper burns or complications like infection.
Choice B: Elevated blood pressure
- Rationale: Elevated blood pressure is not a typical complication of a partial thickness burn. In fact, burn patients are more at risk for hypotension (low blood pressure) due to fluid loss.
Choice C: Compartment syndrome
- Rationale: Compartment syndrome is a serious complication that typically occurs with deep burns or traumatic injuries. It's caused by increased pressure within a muscle compartment, restricting blood flow and potentially leading to tissue death. While a possibility, it's less likely for a partial thickness burn 3 days after the injury.
Choice D: Curling's Ulcer
- Rationale: Curling's ulcer is a peptic ulcer (stomach ulcer) that can develop as a complication of major burns. This is because burns trigger a massive inflammatory response, releasing stress hormones that increase stomach acid production, making the stomach lining more susceptible to ulcers. Given the extensive burn area (30% TBSA) and the timeframe (3 days post-burn), Curling's ulcer becomes a significant concern.
Therefore, the correct answer is: Choice D: Curling's Ulcer
Explanation:
- A 30% TBSA partial thickness burn is a significant injury that triggers a systemic inflammatory response.
- Three days post-burn falls within the timeframe when Curling's ulcer can develop due to the increased stress hormones and gastric acid production.
- While pain management and monitoring for compartment syndrome are important, Curling's ulcer poses a more significant threat in this scenario.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
The correct answer is C. Oriented to person only.
Choice A rationale:
A blood pressure of 144/84 mmHg is slightly elevated but not critically high. While it is important to monitor, it does not immediately impact the instructions for morning care.
Choice B rationale:
An oxygen saturation measurement of 95 to 96% is within the normal range and indicates adequate oxygenation. This is important to monitor but does not require specific changes to morning care instructions.
Choice C rationale:
Being oriented to person only indicates a significant alteration in the client’s cognitive status, which is crucial for the UAP to be aware of. This affects the client’s ability to understand and follow instructions, and may require additional supervision and safety measures during care.
Choice D rationale:
A urinary output of 50 mL/hour is within the normal range (typically 30-50 mL/hour is considered adequate). While it is important to monitor, it does not necessitate immediate changes to morning care instructions.
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