What is a side effect of diphenhydramine?
Salivation
Watery eyes
Urinary frequency
Constipation
The Correct Answer is D
A. Salivation: Diphenhydramine, an antihistamine with anticholinergic properties, typically reduces salivation rather than increases it. Excessive drooling is not a side effect of this medication.
B. Watery eyes: Diphenhydramine works to relieve allergic symptoms, including watery eyes, so this symptom is more likely to be a reason for taking the medication rather than a side effect.
C. Urinary frequency: Anticholinergic effects of diphenhydramine usually cause urinary retention, not increased frequency. Clients may experience difficulty voiding rather than needing to urinate more often.
D. Constipation: The anticholinergic action of diphenhydramine can slow gastrointestinal motility, leading to constipation. Clients should be advised about this potential side effect and strategies to prevent it, such as increased fluid and fiber intake.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Fexofenadine: Fexofenadine is a second-generation antihistamine typically administered orally. It is non-sedating and not available in an intravenous form, so it is not suitable for immediate treatment of pruritus during an acute blood transfusion reaction.
B. Loratadine: Loratadine is also a second-generation oral antihistamine. It does not have an intravenous formulation and its onset is slower, making it ineffective for rapid symptom relief in acute transfusion reactions.
C. Cetirizine: Cetirizine is a second-generation antihistamine available orally. Although it is effective for allergic reactions, it does not have an IV form for rapid intervention during a transfusion-related pruritus episode.
D. Diphenhydramine: Diphenhydramine is a first-generation antihistamine that can be administered intravenously for rapid relief of pruritus during acute allergic reactions, including blood transfusion reactions. Its IV form allows immediate onset of action, which is critical in managing these acute symptoms.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
. Hypertension: Methylprednisolone is a corticosteroid used primarily for its anti-inflammatory and immunosuppressive effects. While long-term use can contribute to elevated blood pressure, hypertension itself is not an indication for this medication.
B. Asthma exacerbation: Methylprednisolone is indicated for the management of acute asthma exacerbations because it reduces airway inflammation, improves airflow, and decreases the severity and duration of symptoms. It is commonly used when inhaled therapies are insufficient.
C. Bacterial pneumonia: While corticosteroids may sometimes be used as adjunct therapy in severe bacterial pneumonia, antibiotics are the primary treatment. Methylprednisolone is not indicated as first-line therapy for bacterial infections.
D. Type 1 diabetes mellitus: Type 1 diabetes is managed with insulin therapy. Methylprednisolone does not treat the underlying autoimmune destruction of pancreatic beta cells and can actually worsen glycemic control due to its hyperglycemic effects.
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