What is the best method for assessing adverse childhood experiences (ACE) in an adolescent exhibiting aggression and anxiety?
Focus only on the aggression and ignore the significance of ACES.
Utilize the adolescent self-report ACE questionnaire in a private setting.
Interview the adolescent in the presence of their parent or caregiver.
Assess only the family dynamic without addressing individual experiences.
The Correct Answer is B
A. Focusing only on the adolescent’s aggression ignores the potential root causes of behavioral and emotional difficulties. ACEs can significantly impact mental health, coping skills, and risk behaviors. Ignoring them limits the effectiveness of assessment and intervention.
B. Utilizing a self-report ACE questionnaire in a private setting is the best method. This approach ensures confidentiality, encourages honest disclosure, and allows the adolescent to report sensitive experiences without fear of judgment or repercussions from parents or caregivers. It provides valuable information about trauma exposure, which can inform targeted interventions for aggression, anxiety, and other mental health concerns.
C. Interviewing the adolescent in the presence of a parent or caregiver may inhibit disclosure of sensitive or traumatic experiences. Adolescents are less likely to report abuse, neglect, or household dysfunction if they are concerned about the reactions of their caregivers.
D. Assessing only the family dynamic without addressing individual experiences overlooks the adolescent’s personal exposure to trauma. Individual ACE assessment is necessary to understand the adolescent’s emotional, behavioral, and psychological needs and to guide appropriate interventions.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. This would only provide 40 mg, which is exactly half of the prescribed 80 mg dose.
B. Step 1: Use the formula- Volume to administer (mL) = Desired dose ÷ Concentration. Step 2: Insert known values (Desired dose = 80 mg, Concentration = 40 mg/mL). Volume to administer = 80 ÷ 40 = 2 mL.
C. This would provide 120mg (40 X 3), which is a significant overdose.
D. This would provide 60 mg (40 X 1.5), which is 20 mg short of the required dose.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Physical restraints are sometimes used as a last-resort intervention to prevent immediate harm to the client or others, such as in cases of severe agitation or risk of falls. They are intended to be short-term and temporary, with continuous monitoring and frequent reassessment to minimize harm.
B. Restraints do not improve long-term behavior. In fact, overuse can increase agitation, anxiety, and aggression, and can negatively affect trust and the therapeutic relationship.
C. Physical restraints do not address the underlying causes of agitation and do not provide a permanent solution. They may temporarily control behavior but can worsen emotional distress and cognitive symptoms over time.
D. Restraints have no effect on the neurodegenerative process associated with neurocognitive disorders. Cognitive decline continues regardless of restraint use.
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