What is the CD4 count diagnostic for AIDS?
less than 200 or <200
less than 400 or < 400
more than 400 or 400
more than 200 or > 200
The Correct Answer is A
Rationale:
A. AIDS (Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome) is diagnosed in an HIV-positive individual when the CD4+ T-lymphocyte count falls below 200 cells/mm³ or when the patient develops opportunistic infections or AIDS-defining illnesses.
B. Less than 400 or <400 – A CD4 count in this range indicates HIV infection with some immune compromise, but it does not meet the threshold for an AIDS diagnosis.
C. More than 400 or >400 – This represents a normal or near-normal immune function, not diagnostic for AIDS.
D. More than 200 or >200 – A CD4 count above 200 suggests HIV infection without progression to AIDS.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","C"]
Explanation
Rationale:
A. A kink or obstruction in the ventilator tubing increases resistance to airflow. The ventilator is pressure-triggered and senses that it must generate higher pressure than normal to deliver the set tidal volume. This triggers the high-pressure alarm. Nurses should inspect the tubing immediately, straighten any kinks, and ensure the circuit is free from obstruction.
B. A leak causes a loss of delivered volume or pressure, which usually triggers a low-pressure alarm rather than a high-pressure alarm. Leaks allow air to escape, so the ventilator cannot build the necessary pressure to deliver a full breath.
C. Secretions or mucus plugs obstruct airflow in the endotracheal or tracheostomy tube, making it harder for the ventilator to push air into the lungs. This obstruction increases airway pressure, resulting in a high-pressure alarm. Nurses should assess lung sounds, suction the airway if needed, and ensure proper humidification to prevent thick secretions.
D. Changing the circuit may temporarily trigger an alarm, but this is usually brief and procedural, not a physiologic cause of a high-pressure alarm. Once the circuit is connected properly, the alarm should resolve.
E. In modes that rely on spontaneous breathing, apnea or lack of patient effort usually triggers an apnea or low tidal volume alarm, not a high-pressure alarm. The high-pressure alarm reflects resistance or obstruction, not absence of breathing effort.
Correct Answer is ["A","C","E"]
Explanation
Rationale:
A. Full tonic-clonic seizure activity is correct because status epilepticus often involves generalized tonic-clonic seizures, which are the most recognizable and severe form of seizure activity. Continuous or repeated tonic-clonic activity can cause hypoxia, hypotension, and metabolic disturbances, making rapid intervention critical.
B. Seizure activity that lasts for 2 minutes or longer is incorrect because a seizure lasting 2 minutes is prolonged but does not meet the definition of status epilepticus, which typically requires a longer duration or repeated seizures without recovery.
C. Two or more sequential seizures occur without full recovery of consciousness between seizures is correct because status epilepticus can occur as repeated seizures without regaining consciousness, which is a defining characteristic. This pattern leads to cumulative neuronal injury and systemic complications.
D. Seizure activity that lasts for greater than 60 minutes is incorrect because the formal definition of status epilepticus does not require 60 minutes of continuous seizure activity. Intervention is indicated much earlier, usually after 5 minutes of continuous seizure activity, to prevent long-term neurological damage.
E. Seizure activity that lasts for 30 minutes or longer is correct because prolonged seizures ≥30 minutes are consistent with status epilepticus and pose significant risk for permanent brain injury. Modern definitions often use ≥5 minutes for initiation of treatment, but 30 minutes represents severe ongoing status epilepticus.
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