What is the classic symptom of Celiac Disease?
Joint pain and inflammation
Lactose intolerance
Iron deficiency anemia
Steatorrhea
The Correct Answer is D
Celiac disease is an autoimmune enteropathy triggered by the ingestion of gluten in genetically predisposed individuals. The immune response causes villous atrophy in the small intestine, significantly reducing the surface area available for nutrient absorption. This leading to profound malabsorption of fats and fat-soluble vitamins, which alters the composition and appearance of the stool as unabsorbed nutrients are excreted.
Rationale:
A. Joint pain and inflammation are extra-intestinal manifestations that can occur in celiac disease but are not considered "classic" symptoms. These systemic symptoms are common to many autoimmune disorders. The hallmark signs of celiac disease are primarily gastrointestinal, reflecting the direct damage to the intestinal mucosa and the resulting failure of the digestive process.
B. Secondary lactose intolerance often accompanies celiac disease because the damaged villi cannot produce enough lactase enzyme. However, this is a secondary effect rather than the defining classic symptom of the primary disease process. Many other conditions cause lactose intolerance, making it less specific than the malabsorption signs directly linked to gluten-induced intestinal injury.
C. Iron deficiency anemia is a frequent consequence of the malabsorption seen in celiac disease because iron is absorbed in the duodenum, where damage is often most severe. While it is a common diagnostic clue, it is a secondary complication. The most characteristic and direct clinical indicator of the intestinal failure associated with celiac disease involves the nature of the stool.
D. Steatorrhea is the classic symptom of Celiac Disease. It refers to the presence of excess fat in the feces, resulting from the malabsorption caused by villous atrophy. These stools are typically foul-smelling, oily, and frothy, and they often float in the toilet. This finding directly reflects the primary pathophysiology of the disease: the inability of the small intestine to absorb lipids.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Gastroesophageal reflux disease(GERD), commonly experienced as heartburn, occurs when the lower esophageal sphincter(LES) fails to remain closed, allowing acidic gastric contents to reflux into the esophagus. Certain dietary components contain methylxanthines or specific fats that exert a pharmacological effect on the smooth muscle of the LES, causing it to relax. Reducing these triggers is a primary strategy to prevent mucosal injury and esophagitis.
Rationale:
A.Steak is a high-protein food that generally does not cause the immediate relaxation of the lower esophageal sphincter. While very fatty cuts of meat can delay gastric emptying and contribute to reflux, steak itself is not a classic, direct chemical trigger for heartburn. The patient should focus on eliminating known chemical relaxants of the esophageal muscle first.
B.Chocolateshould be eliminated because it contains methylxanthines(like theobromine) which relax the lower esophageal sphincter(LES). This relaxation allows stomach acid to backflow into the esophagus, causing the burning sensation known as pyrosis. Chocolate is also often high in fat, which further slows gastric emptying and increases the likelihood of reflux episodes.
C.Carrots are a non-acidic, low-fat vegetable that is generally well-tolerated by patients with GERD. They do not contain chemicals that affect sphincter tone or increase gastric acid production. Carrots are actually a recommended part of a "reflux-friendly" diet because they provide fiber and nutrients without triggering the symptoms of heartburn or esophageal irritation.
D.Popcorn is a whole-grain snack that is generally safe for GERD patients, provided it is not prepared with excessive butter or spicy seasonings. Plain or lightly salted popcorn does not possess the chemical properties needed to relax the esophageal sphincter. It is considered a low-risk food compared to the strong chemical triggers found in cocoa or caffeinated products.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Crohn diseaseis a transmural inflammatory condition that often leads to fistula formation. Draining fistulas cause the loss of nutrient-rich fluids and electrolytes through abnormal tracts. Potassiumis the primary intracellular cation, and its depletion can lead to fatal myocardial irritabilityand paralysis of the respiratory muscles, requiring emergent pharmacological replacement and monitoring.
Rationale:
A.A white blood cell count of 8200/mm3 is within the normal reference range of 5000 to 10000/mm3. While patients with fistulas are at risk for infection, this specific value does not indicate an acute inflammatory process or sepsis. Therefore, this data point is stable and does not necessitate an immediate or emergent nursing intervention.
B.Eating only 20% of a meal is concerning for a patient with a chronic inflammatory condition, but it is not an acute emergency. Poor oral intake is common in Crohn disease due to abdominal pain and anorexia. While nutritional support is necessary, it is a long-term management goal rather than an immediate life-saving priority.
C.A weight decrease of 3 lb is significant and indicates a negative fluid or nutritional balance. In a patient with a draining fistula, this weight loss likely reflects fluid loss or malabsorption. However, compared to the immediate risk of cardiac arrest from electrolyte imbalance, weight changes are addressed over a longer clinical timeframe.
D.A serum potassium of 2.6 mEq/L requires immediate intervention because it represents severe hypokalemia. The normal range is 3.5 to 5.0 mEq/L; levels below 2.5 to 3.0 mEq/L are associated with life-threatening ventricular dysrhythmias and cardiac arrest. The nurse must notify the provider immediately to begin intravenous potassium replacement under continuous cardiac monitoring.
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