When preparing a teaching plan for a female adolescent with a sexually transmitted infection (STI), the nurse plans to address the fact that the adolescent is at increased risk for cervical cancer. Which STI would the adolescent most likely have?
genital warts
genital herpes
syphilis
chlamydia
The Correct Answer is A
A. Genital warts: Genital warts are caused by the human papillomavirus (HPV), particularly types 16 and 18, which are strongly associated with the development of cervical cancer. Persistent HPV infection leads to cellular changes in the cervix, making regular Pap smears and HPV vaccination essential preventive measures.
B. Genital herpes: Herpes simplex virus type 2 (HSV-2) causes painful vesicular lesions but is not linked to cervical cancer. Although recurrent herpes infections can cause discomfort and emotional distress, they do not cause malignant transformation of cervical cells.
C. Syphilis: Caused by Treponema pallidum, syphilis can lead to systemic complications affecting multiple organs if untreated. However, it is not associated with cervical cancer risk, as it does not cause persistent cellular damage to the cervix.
D. Chlamydia: Chlamydia trachomatis infection can lead to pelvic inflammatory disease and infertility but does not directly cause cervical cancer. Its link to cancer is indirect, mainly through chronic inflammation, but HPV remains the primary viral cause of cervical malignancy.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. "It is normal for your bowel movements to be black.": Black stools may indicate gastrointestinal bleeding, a potential adverse effect of ibuprofen. This finding is not normal and should be reported immediately to the healthcare provider.
B. "Take the medication on an empty stomach.": Ibuprofen can irritate the gastric mucosa and increase the risk of ulcers or bleeding. It should always be taken with food or milk to minimize gastrointestinal discomfort and protect the stomach lining.
C. "Add an aspirin to the regimen if you do not get relief right away.": Combining ibuprofen with aspirin increases the risk of gastrointestinal bleeding and does not enhance pain control. Only one NSAID should be used at a time unless specifically prescribed.
D. "Start taking the medication before you first get your period.": NSAIDs like ibuprofen are most effective when started 1–2 days before menstruation or at the onset of symptoms, as they inhibit prostaglandin synthesis, reducing uterine contractions and menstrual pain.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Initiate chelation therapy with deferoxamine: Deferoxamine is used to treat iron toxicity, not salicylate poisoning. It binds excess iron for renal excretion, so it has no therapeutic effect in cases of acetylsalicylic acid (aspirin) overdose.
B. Perform gastric lavage with activated charcoal: Activated charcoal binds salicylates in the gastrointestinal tract, preventing further absorption into the bloodstream. Gastric lavage followed by charcoal administration is effective when performed soon after ingestion, helping reduce systemic toxicity.
C. Administer N-acetylcysteine: N-acetylcysteine is the antidote for acetaminophen (paracetamol) toxicity. It replenishes hepatic glutathione and protects the liver, but it has no role in neutralizing salicylate poisoning.
D. Induce vomiting with syrup of ipecac: Inducing vomiting is no longer recommended because it can cause aspiration and delay more effective treatments like activated charcoal or gastric lavage. Controlled decontamination under medical supervision is the safer approach.
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