Which commonly prescribed is does the nurse identify as ototoxic?
Ondansetron and Metoclopramide
Aspirin and ibuprofen
Metoprolol and Furosemide
Pantoprazole Docusate Sodium
The Correct Answer is B
A) Ondansetron and Metoclopramide:
Ondansetron is an antiemetic used to prevent nausea and vomiting, and Metoclopramide is a medication that promotes gastric emptying and is often used to treat nausea and gastroesophageal reflux. Neither of these medications are typically associated with ototoxicity. Ototoxicity is more commonly seen with medications that affect the inner ear or auditory pathways, particularly those that are used in high doses or over extended periods.
B) Aspirin and ibuprofen:
Both aspirin (a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug, NSAID) and ibuprofen are associated with ototoxicity, especially when used in high doses or over prolonged periods. Ototoxicity from NSAIDs can result in symptoms such as tinnitus (ringing in the ears) or even hearing loss. This occurs due to their impact on the cochlea and auditory nerve.
C) Metoprolol and Furosemide:
Metoprolol is a beta-blocker used for managing hypertension, heart failure, and other cardiovascular conditions, and Furosemide is a diuretic often used to treat conditions such as heart failure and edema. Neither of these drugs is typically associated with ototoxicity. However, high doses of furosemide, particularly when given rapidly or intravenously, may be associated with transient hearing loss.
D) Pantoprazole and Docusate Sodium:
Pantoprazole is a proton pump inhibitor (PPI) used to treat gastrointestinal issues like acid reflux and ulcers. Docusate sodium is a stool softener used to treat constipation. Neither of these medications is known to cause ototoxicity. These drugs generally do not affect hearing or the auditory system.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A) Blood pressure 102/78:
This blood pressure is within an acceptable range, especially after resuscitation with fluids and blood products. While hypotension is a concern in hypovolemic shock, this blood pressure is stable and does not indicate an immediate need for intervention. Blood pressure monitoring is essential, but this finding is not as urgent as other options.
B) Pulse oximetry 95%:
A pulse oximetry reading of 95% is generally considered within normal limits for a patient who has undergone resuscitation and is stable. Oxygen saturation levels should be monitored, but this finding does not indicate an immediate need for intervention. Values below 90% would be more concerning, especially in trauma patients, but 95% is acceptable.
C) Crackles at bilateral bases:
The presence of crackles at the bilateral lung bases is a sign of pulmonary edema, which can occur as a result of fluid overload, especially after aggressive resuscitation with fluids like lactated Ringer's solution (LR) and blood products. In hypovolemic shock, rapid infusion of fluids can overwhelm the heart's ability to handle the volume, leading to fluid accumulation in the lungs. This finding is concerning because it can indicate a shift from hypovolemic shock to a state of volume overload, which can worsen respiratory function and lead to acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS).
D) Heart rate 105 beats per minute:
A heart rate of 105 beats per minute is slightly elevated but can be expected in a patient who has experienced trauma and is undergoing fluid resuscitation. Tachycardia is often seen in hypovolemic shock as the body compensates for decreased circulating volume. While monitoring the heart rate is important, this finding does not indicate an immediate life-threatening concern compared to crackles in the lungs, which suggest pulmonary edema.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A) CD4 count of less than 200 cells/uL, and new diagnosis of pneumocystis pneumonia:
A CD4 count of less than 200 cells/uL and the diagnosis of a severe opportunistic infection, such as pneumocystis pneumonia (PCP), are major criteria for the diagnosis of acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). AIDS is the final stage of HIV infection, where the immune system is severely compromised, and the individual is highly susceptible to opportunistic infections like PCP, tuberculosis, and others. The CD4 count, which measures the number of immune system cells (specifically T-helper cells), is used to monitor disease progression, with values below 200 cells/uL indicating a diagnosis of AIDS.
B) CD4 count of 1200 cells/uL and a new diagnosis of hepatitis A:
While hepatitis A is an important condition that should be managed, it is not an opportunistic infection associated with AIDS. A CD4 count of 1200 cells/uL is within the normal range (500-1800 cells/uL), indicating that the immune system is not severely compromised.
C) Low grade fever with the diagnosis of influenza A:
A low-grade fever and a diagnosis of influenza A do not indicate AIDS. Influenza is a viral infection that can affect both individuals with and without HIV. It is common to experience flu-like symptoms in the early stages of HIV infection, but the presence of a fever and influenza does not confirm AIDS. A low-grade fever is also not specific to AIDS or opportunistic infections.
D) New atopic dermatitis and a white blood count of 11 million/mm³:
Atopic dermatitis is a chronic inflammatory skin condition that is not specifically associated with HIV or AIDS. The white blood cell (WBC) count of 11 million/mm³ is elevated, but this alone does not confirm a diagnosis of AIDS. Elevated WBC counts can occur with various conditions, including infections and allergic reactions, but they are not a diagnostic feature of AIDS.
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