The nurse is caring for patient with severe, major burns who is receiving fluid resuscitation per protocol. Which of the following assessments indicate positive outcome?
Urine output of 0.5-1 mL/kg/hr
Serum sodium level 149 mEq/L. (normal 135-145)
Blood pressure 82/54
Heart rate 124 beats per minute
The Correct Answer is A
A) Urine output of 0.5-1 mL/kg/hr:
This is a positive outcome during fluid resuscitation for burn patients. Adequate urine output is a key indicator of proper renal perfusion and fluid balance. A urine output of 0.5-1 mL/kg/hr is considered optimal for burn patients during the first 24-48 hours of resuscitation. It suggests that the kidneys are receiving sufficient blood flow and that the patient is responding appropriately to the fluids being administered.
B) Serum sodium level 149 mEq/L (normal 135-145):
A serum sodium level of 149 mEq/L is high and indicates hypernatremia, which is a common complication of excessive fluid resuscitation, particularly with the use of crystalloids. Hypernatremia can lead to cerebral edema, altered mental status, and other severe complications. Therefore, this finding would suggest improper fluid management and would not be considered a positive outcome.
C) Blood pressure 82/54:
A blood pressure of 82/54 is hypotensive, which is concerning in a burn patient. Hypotension indicates inadequate tissue perfusion, potentially leading to shock and organ failure. While low blood pressure may occur in the initial stages of resuscitation due to the rapid shifts in fluid, a sustained low blood pressure is not a positive outcome.
D) Heart rate 124 beats per minute:
A heart rate of 124 beats per minute is tachycardic and suggests that the patient is compensating for hypovolemia or inadequate circulatory volume, possibly due to insufficient fluid resuscitation. Although an elevated heart rate may occur as a compensatory mechanism in the initial stages of burn resuscitation, sustained tachycardia indicates ongoing volume depletion or inadequate perfusion and is not an ideal outcome.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A) A Rhinovirus infection can cause cancer of the cervix
Rhinovirus is primarily associated with the common cold and respiratory infections, not with cervical cancer. The risk factors for cervical cancer are related to persistent infections with certain strains of the human papillomavirus (HPV), especially high-risk types like HPV-16 and HPV-18, which can lead to cervical dysplasia and, eventually, cervical cancer.
B) Eating foods high in fat and taking birth control pills are risk factors
While diet and certain medications may influence overall health, eating foods high in fat and taking birth control pills are not primary risk factors for cervical cancer. Research has shown that certain hormonal contraceptives (especially long-term use) may slightly increase the risk of cervical cancer, but the most significant and well-established risk factor is HPV infection, not fat intake or birth control use.
C) The earlier the age of sexual activity and the more partners, the greater the risk
The major risk factor for cervical cancer is persistent infection with high-risk HPV. Early initiation of sexual activity and having multiple sexual partners increase the risk of HPV infection, which is a leading cause of cervical cancer. HPV is transmitted through sexual contact, and early exposure to the virus, as well as repeated exposure to multiple partners, increases the likelihood of acquiring a high-risk strain of HPV.
D) Having yearly Pap smears will protect you from developing cancer
While Pap smears (Pap tests) are important for detecting precancerous changes (such as dysplasia) or early-stage cervical cancer, they do not prevent cancer. Pap smears can help identify abnormal cell changes that can be treated before they develop into cancer, but they do not protect against the development of cancer.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A) Be placed in isolation to prevent radiation exposure to others:
Radioactive iodine (I-131) is commonly used to treat thyroid cancer because it targets and destroys thyroid tissue, including any remaining cancerous cells. This treatment involves the administration of a radioactive substance that can be excreted through saliva, urine, and sweat. To minimize radiation exposure to others, patients are often placed in isolation, particularly in a hospital setting, for a period following administration.
B) Avoid consuming any food or fluids for 24 hours prior to the treatment:
While it’s essential for patients to follow specific instructions regarding food and fluid intake, such as avoiding certain foods or fluids that may interfere with absorption or increase the risk of side effects (like dairy products), the patient does not need to avoid all food and fluids for 24 hours after receiving radioactive iodine.
C) Avoid all physical activity for six weeks after the treatment:
While some precautions, such as avoiding close contact with others for a short period of time, may be necessary, avoiding physical activity for six weeks is not usually required. Patients may be advised to take it easy during the initial recovery phase, but they can typically resume normal activities once the initial isolation period is complete and their radiation exposure is below safety thresholds.
D) Discontinue all other medications for a week before treatment:
However, certain medications that affect thyroid function (such as thyroid hormones or antithyroid medications) may need to be adjusted or stopped before treatment to ensure the effectiveness of the radioactive iodine. The specifics would depend on the patient’s condition and the healthcare provider’s instructions.
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