Which of the following assessment findings or results will the nurse plan to obtain in order to determine the effectiveness of the prescribed calcium carbonate for a client with chronic kidney disease?
Creatinine clearance
Blood pressure
Neurologic status
Phosphate level
The Correct Answer is D
A. Creatinine clearance: Creatinine clearance measures kidney function and glomerular filtration rate but does not reflect the effectiveness of calcium carbonate therapy. Calcium carbonate is prescribed to bind phosphate, not to improve renal filtration. Monitoring creatinine is important for overall kidney status but not for medication efficacy.
B. Blood pressure: Blood pressure assessment is important in chronic kidney disease management, but it does not indicate whether calcium carbonate is effectively controlling phosphate levels. Hypertension may be affected by fluid balance and other medications, not directly by calcium carbonate.
C. Neurologic status: Neurologic assessment can detect complications of electrolyte imbalances, such as severe hyperphosphatemia or hypocalcemia, but it is not a direct measure of calcium carbonate effectiveness. Changes in neurological function are late indicators rather than immediate markers.
D. Phosphate level: Calcium carbonate binds dietary phosphate to reduce serum phosphate levels in chronic kidney disease. Monitoring phosphate levels allows the nurse to determine if the medication is achieving its therapeutic goal. A decrease in phosphate indicates effective treatment.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Cardiac tamponade: Cardiac tamponade typically presents with hypotension, jugular venous distension, and muffled heart sounds (Beck’s triad). While shortness of breath may occur, the use of accessory muscles is not a defining feature. Chest pain is usually retrosternal and not always associated with respiratory distress.
B. Pneumothorax: Pneumothorax presents with chest pain, dyspnea, and increased use of accessory muscles due to impaired lung expansion. These signs indicate compromised ventilation and decreased oxygenation. Trauma is a common cause, making this a likely condition. Rapid assessment and intervention are essential.
C. Aspiration: Aspiration can cause sudden coughing, choking, and possible hypoxia, but it is not typically associated with chest trauma or immediate accessory muscle use. It is less likely in the context of a motor vehicle accident.
D. Splenic laceration: Splenic injury usually presents with left upper quadrant abdominal pain, referred shoulder pain, and signs of internal bleeding such as hypotension and tachycardia. Respiratory distress and accessory muscle use are not typical features.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Cool, clammy skin: During the compensatory stage of shock, the sympathetic nervous system triggers peripheral vasoconstriction to maintain blood flow to vital organs. This shunts blood away from the skin, causing it to become cool and moist. These changes reflect early compensatory mechanisms attempting to stabilize perfusion.
B. Decreased heart rate: A decreased heart rate is not expected in the compensatory stage, as the body typically increases heart rate to maintain cardiac output. Sympathetic activation drives tachycardia to compensate for reduced circulating volume. A slowed pulse would suggest a different clinical problem unrelated to early shock.
C. Hyperactive bowel sounds: Shock states generally reduce perfusion to nonessential organs, including the gastrointestinal tract. This leads to diminished or hypoactive bowel sounds, not hyperactivity. Blood flow is redirected to support the heart and brain rather than digestion.
D. Increased urine output: In early shock, the kidneys receive reduced blood flow as the body conserves fluid and maintains central perfusion. This results in decreased, not increased, urine output. Reduced renal perfusion is a key early indicator of volume loss. Increased output contradicts expected physiological responses in shock.
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