Which of the following factors in a client's history would alert the nurse to an increased risk for postpartum hemorrhage?
Primigravida, small baby, operative delivery.
Premature birth, infection, length of labor.
Multiparity, age of mother, operative delivery.
Uterine atony, placenta previa, operative procedures.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale
Primigravida (first pregnancy) is not typically a primary risk factor for postpartum hemorrhage (PPH) itself, unlike multiparity or grand multiparity. A small baby is less likely to cause uterine overdistention and subsequent atony compared to a macrosomic infant. While operative delivery (e.g., C-section, forceps) carries risk, the combination is less critical than factors leading to uterine atony.
Choice B rationale
Premature birth, while potentially associated with an underdeveloped placenta or placental issues, is not a direct primary cause of postpartum hemorrhage. Infection (chorioamnionitis or endometritis) and a prolonged length of labor (causing uterine muscle fatigue) are recognized contributing factors that can lead to uterine atony, but are often secondary to the main causes.
Choice C rationale
Multiparity (multiple pregnancies and births) increases the risk of PPH due to repeated stretching and potentially reduced myometrial tone, predisposing to atony. Older maternal age (over 35) is a risk factor, possibly due to higher rates of underlying medical conditions or prolonged labor. Operative delivery also introduces trauma and potential placental issues.
Choice D rationale
Uterine atony (failure of the uterus to contract and compress blood vessels) is the most common cause of postpartum hemorrhage (PPH), accounting for about 80% of cases. Placenta previa increases the risk because the placenta's lower segment implantation may prevent effective contraction post-delivery. Operative procedures, especially Cesarean section, increase blood loss and potential for uterine trauma. —.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Obtaining umbilical cord blood gases provides an objective measure of the acid-base status at birth, reflecting the severity and duration of peri-natal asphyxia; however, an APGAR score of 6 at 5 minutes indicates moderate distress and a need for immediate intervention, not just diagnosis, as the priority. While informative, this step is secondary to stabilization efforts. Normal umbilical arterial pH is 7.25-7.40.
Choice B rationale
An APGAR score of 6 at 5 minutes indicates moderate cardio-respiratory depression, requiring active intervention to prevent further decline and potential injury, thus beginning resuscitative measures is the highest priority. Initial steps often include tactile stimulation and positive pressure ventilation (PPV) if necessary, aiming to rapidly improve vital signs and oxygenation which are the direct parameters affecting the APGAR score.
Choice C rationale
Promoting kangaroo care (skin-to-skin contact) is beneficial for thermoregulation, bonding, and stabilization in stable newborns; however, a score of 6 suggests the infant is not fully stable and requires closer monitoring and potential intervention, making it inappropriate as the initial priority over addressing the compromised respiratory and cardiac status.
Choice D rationale
Initiating IV fluid therapy may be necessary for hypovolemia or to administer medications, but it is not the immediate priority for a newborn with an APGAR score of 6, whose primary needs are establishing effective respiration and circulation. Establishing intravenous access would follow the stabilization of the airway and breathing if necessary. —.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Testing the ability to raise legs is not a specific or reliable method for assessing Deep Vein Thrombosis (DVT). DVT assessment primarily involves checking for unilateral leg swelling, warmth, redness, and pain, sometimes elicited by Homan's sign (pain on dorsiflexion of the foot), although this sign is less reliable and discouraged by some guidelines due to the risk of embolization. Venous Doppler ultrasound is the definitive diagnostic tool.
Choice B rationale
Assessing hidden bleeding, particularly postpartum hemorrhage (PPH), involves checking the fundus for firmness and location (normal is firm, near the umbilicus initially), assessing the amount and characteristics of lochia (normal is rubra, scant to moderate), and monitoring vital signs for signs of shock (e.g., tachycardia, hypotension). The leg-raising test is irrelevant to PPH assessment.
Choice C rationale
Discharge eligibility after vaginal delivery is typically based on factors such as stable vital signs, appropriate uterine involution, controlled pain, adequate voiding, successful newborn feeding, and completion of necessary teaching and screenings. The ability to raise legs only relates to motor function post-anesthesia, not the global criteria for discharge.
Choice D rationale
Epidural or spinal anesthesia temporarily blocks nerve impulses, causing sensory and motor paralysis in the lower extremities. The ability to flex or raise the legs is a direct test of motor function return. Full motor function must be regained before a patient can safely ambulate, which is crucial for preventing falls and is part of the recovery room discharge criteria. —.
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