Which of the following medications is a second generation antipsychotic and is also used to treat bipolar disorder and Tourettes syndrome?
Quetiapine (Seroquel)
Risperidone (Resperdal)
Olanzapine (Zyprexa)
Aripiprazole (Ability)
The Correct Answer is D
Second-generation antipsychotics (atypical antipsychotics) are medications that primarily act on dopamine and serotonin receptors to manage psychotic disorders and mood instability. Some agents in this class are also approved for bipolar disorder and certain tic disorders due to their dopamine-modulating effects. These drugs differ in receptor affinity profiles, which influences their clinical uses and side effect burden.
Rationale:
A. Quetiapine (Seroquel) is a second-generation antipsychotic commonly used for schizophrenia, bipolar disorder, and major depressive disorder adjunct therapy. It has strong sedative effects due to histamine receptor blockade but is not a first-line agent for Tourette syndrome. Its primary use is mood stabilization and psychosis rather than tic suppression.
B. Risperidone (Risperdal) is an atypical antipsychotic used for schizophrenia, bipolar disorder, and irritability associated with autism spectrum disorder. It is also used in some cases of Tourette syndrome, but it has a higher risk of extrapyramidal symptoms at higher doses. Despite this, it is not the best match for the combined indication profile.
C. Olanzapine (Zyprexa) is a second-generation antipsychotic used for schizophrenia and bipolar disorder, particularly for acute manic episodes. It is associated with significant metabolic side effects such as weight gain and hyperglycemia. It is not commonly indicated for Tourette syndrome, limiting its fit for the combined clinical scenario.
D. Aripiprazole (Abilify) is a second-generation antipsychotic that acts as a partial dopamine agonist, which helps stabilize dopamine activity rather than fully blocking it. It is approved for schizophrenia, bipolar disorder, and Tourette syndrome due to its effectiveness in reducing tics and mood symptoms.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Long-term management of Fluoxetine involves maintaining remission of depressive symptoms while preventing relapse. Even when a patient reports sustained improvement and functional recovery, antidepressants are not stopped abruptly due to the risk of symptom recurrence and discontinuation effects. Decisions about stopping therapy require a structured, supervised plan that includes dose tapering and clinical monitoring. Individualized assessment of relapse risk, duration of remission, and history of depressive episodes guides safe discontinuation.
Rationale:
A. Stopping the drug abruptly is unsafe because sudden withdrawal of fluoxetine can lead to discontinuation symptoms such as mood instability, irritability, and sleep disturbances. Although fluoxetine has a long half-life, it still requires careful tapering in many patients. Abrupt cessation also increases the risk of depressive relapse, especially after long-term treatment.
B. A drug holiday is not an evidence-based or safe strategy for antidepressant management. Temporary cessation does not assess true remission and may destabilize neurotransmitter balance, leading to rebound symptoms. This approach may actually trigger a recurrence of depressive symptoms.
C. Discussing gradual withdrawal with the provider is the safest and most appropriate approach. A supervised taper allows monitoring for recurrence of depressive symptoms while minimizing withdrawal effects. The provider can evaluate risk factors and determine whether continued maintenance therapy or stepwise discontinuation is indicated.
D. Indefinite therapy is not universally required for all patients with depression. While some individuals with recurrent or severe depression may need long-term treatment, others in sustained remission may successfully taper off medication under supervision. Treatment duration should be individualized rather than automatically lifelong.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs) are antidepressants that prevent the breakdown of monoamines such as norepinephrine, serotonin, and dopamine. This leads to increased levels of these neurotransmitters but also creates a risk for hypertensive crisis when certain dietary amines are consumed. Tyramine-rich foods can trigger sudden and severe blood pressure elevations in patients taking MAOIs. Immediate assessment focuses on identifying dietary triggers when hypertension is present.
Rationale:
A. Grapefruit juice is more commonly associated with cytochrome P450 enzyme inhibition, affecting drugs like statins and calcium channel blockers. It is not a primary trigger of hypertensive crisis in patients taking MAOIs. While important in medication safety, it is not the most relevant immediate assessment in this scenario.
B. Antihypertensive medication use is important in general cardiovascular assessment, but it does not explain acute hypertensive spikes specific to MAOI therapy. The sudden elevation in blood pressure is more likely related to dietary interactions rather than baseline antihypertensive control issues.
C. Asking the patient to list all foods eaten that day helps identify ingestion of tyramine-rich foods that can trigger hypertensive crisis in patients taking Monoamine oxidase inhibitors. Foods such as aged cheese, cured meats, fermented products, and certain alcoholic beverages can cause excessive norepinephrine release, leading to dangerous blood pressure elevations. This is the most immediate and relevant assessment.
D. Concurrent use of SSRIs with MAOIs is a serious interaction that can cause serotonin syndrome, but it does not typically present as isolated hypertension. While important to assess medication interactions, the acute hypertensive episode is more consistent with a tyramine reaction rather than serotonergic toxicity.
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