Which of the following medications (local anesthetics) are Ester-linked (Select All that Apply.)
Tetracaine
Etidocaine
Prilocaine
Chloroprocaine
Lidocaine
Benzocaine
Correct Answer : A,D,F
A. Tetracaine is an ester-linked local anesthetic used for topical, spinal, and ophthalmic anesthesia. Ester anesthetics are metabolized in the plasma by pseudocholinesterase, producing para-aminobenzoic acid (PABA) metabolites, which are more likely to trigger allergic reactions compared with amide anesthetics.
B. Etidocaine is an amide anesthetic metabolized in the liver. Amides have a very low risk of allergic reactions and are used for infiltration and nerve blocks.
C. Prilocaine is an amide-type anesthetic, often combined with lidocaine in topical creams. It is metabolized in the liver and lungs and does not carry the higher allergy risk associated with ester anesthetics.
D. Chloroprocaine is an ester-linked anesthetic commonly used for epidural anesthesia. It is rapidly metabolized in plasma and, like other esters, carries a higher potential for allergic reactions due to PABA metabolites.
E. Lidocaine is an amide anesthetic metabolized in the liver. True allergic reactions are extremely rare and usually related to preservatives rather than the drug itself.
F. Benzocaine is an ester-linked topical anesthetic commonly used for mucosal surfaces. It is metabolized to PABA and has a higher risk of allergic reactions compared with amide anesthetics.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Vancomycin is structurally unrelated to penicillin, but cross-reactivity in severe beta-lactam allergies is rare but possible. More importantly, vancomycin carries a risk of infusion reactions, including “red man syndrome” or anaphylaxis. This patient represents the highest immediate riskfor a potentially life-threatening reaction and should be assessed first. Early recognition and intervention (stopping the infusion, administering antihistamines or epinephrine if needed) are critical.
B. A pulse of 58 bpm is borderline bradycardia, which warrants caution before digoxin administration, but this is less immediately life-threateningthan a potential severe allergic reaction. The nurse should withhold digoxin if below the provider’s prescribed threshold, but the patient is stable at the moment.
C. Although this patient is at risk for hypoglycemiadue to NPO status after receiving insulin, a blood glucose of 80 mg/dL is within normal range, and the hypoglycemia risk develops gradually. This patient should be monitored closely, but they are not the highest priority at this exact moment.
D. This patient has mild hypertension. While headaches may indicate elevated blood pressure, this is not an immediate life-threatening conditioncompared with a potential anaphylactic reaction to vancomycin.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Administering insulin twice daily (morning and afternoon) is typical for intermediate-acting insulins(e.g., NPH), not for insulin glargine. Glargine is designed for once-daily dosingdue to its long, steady action.
B. Giving insulin 15–30 minutes before meals is appropriate for short-acting insulin(e.g., regular insulin), which is intended to control postprandial glucose spikes. Insulin glargine is not meal-relatedand should not be timed with meals.
C. Administering insulin after meals and at bedtime is more consistent with rapid-acting insulin regimensor correctional insulin. Insulin glargine is basal insulin, not used for immediate glucose control after eating.
D. Insulin glargine (Lantus) is a long-acting basal insulinwith no pronounced peakand a duration of about 24 hours. It is typically administered once daily at the same time each day, commonly at bedtime, to provide consistent background insulin coverage.
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