A nurse is caring for a client who has developed agranulocytosis as a result of taking propylthiouracil to treat hyperthyroidism. The nurse should understand that this client is at increased risk for which of the following conditions?
Infection
Excessive bleeding
Hyperglycemia
Ecchymosis
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A reason: Infection is the correct condition that the client is at increased risk for. Agranulocytosis is a severe decrease in the number of granulocytes, which are a type of white blood cell that fight infection. Propylthiouracil is an antithyroid drug that can cause agranulocytosis as a rare but serious side effect. The client with agranulocytosis is more susceptible to bacterial and fungal infections, and may present with fever, sore throat, mouth ulcers, and skin lesions.
Choice B reason: Excessive bleeding is not the correct condition that the client is at increased risk for. Agranulocytosis does not affect the platelets, which are the blood cells that help with clotting. Propylthiouracil does not cause bleeding disorders, although it may interact with anticoagulants and increase their effect.
Choice C reason: Hyperglycemia is not the correct condition that the client is at increased risk for. Agranulocytosis does not affect the insulin, which is the hormone that regulates blood glucose levels. Propylthiouracil does not cause hyperglycemia, although it may interfere with the metabolism of oral hypoglycemic agents and decrease their effect.
Choice D reason: Ecchymosis is not the correct condition that the client is at increased risk for. Ecchymosis is a bruise caused by bleeding under the skin. Agranulocytosis does not cause ecchymosis, as it does not affect the blood vessels or the platelets. Propylthiouracil does not cause ecchymosis, although it may increase the risk of skin rash and pruritus.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","B","D"]
Explanation
Choice A reason: Removing the patch for 10 to 12 hours daily is a correct instruction. This allows the client to have a nitrate-free period, which prevents the development of tolerance to the medication. Tolerance reduces the effectiveness of nitroglycerin in relieving anginal pain. The client should remove the patch at night, when the risk of angina is lower, and apply a new patch in the morning.
Choice B reason: Applying the patch to a hairless area and rotating sites is a correct instruction. This prevents skin irritation and enhances absorption of the medication. The client should avoid applying the patch to areas that are exposed to heat, sunlight, or friction, as these factors can increase the release of nitroglycerin and cause hypotension.
Choice C reason: Applying a new patch at the onset of anginal pain is not a correct instruction. Transdermal nitroglycerin is used for the prevention, not the treatment, of anginal attacks. The onset of action of transdermal nitroglycerin is slow, and it may take several hours to reach peak effect. The client should use sublingual nitroglycerin, which has a rapid onset of action, to treat acute anginal pain.
Choice D reason: Applying a new patch each morning is a correct instruction. This ensures that the client has a steady and adequate supply of nitroglycerin throughout the day, when the risk of angina is higher. The client should apply the patch to a different site each day, and remove the old patch before applying the new one.
Choice E reason: Applying the patch to dry skin and covering the area with plastic wrap is not a correct instruction. This can cause skin maceration, which is the softening and breaking down of the skin due to moisture. This can increase the risk of infection and reduce the absorption of the medication. The client should apply the patch to clean and dry skin, and avoid covering the area with any dressing or tape.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Naloxone is not the correct medication. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist that reverses the effects of opioid overdose, such as respiratory depression, sedation, and hypotension. Naloxone has no effect on magnesium sulfate, which is a mineral and electrolyte that is used to prevent seizures in clients with preeclampsia or eclampsia.
Choice B reason: Protamine is not the correct medication. Protamine is a heparin antagonist that reverses the effects of heparin overdose, such as bleeding, bruising, and thrombocytopenia. Protamine has no effect on magnesium sulfate, which is not an anticoagulant.
Choice C reason: Calcium gluconate is the correct medication. Calcium gluconate is a calcium salt that antagonizes the effects of magnesium sulfate overdose, such as hypotension, bradycardia, respiratory depression, and muscle weakness. Calcium gluconate is the antidote for magnesium sulfate toxicity, which can occur when the serum magnesium level is above 7.5 mEq/L. The nurse should monitor the client's vital signs, deep tendon reflexes, and urine output, and report any signs of toxicity to the provider.
Choice D reason: Flumazenil is not the correct medication. Flumazenil is a benzodiazepine antagonist that reverses the effects of benzodiazepine overdose, such as drowsiness, confusion, and coma. Flumazenil has no effect on magnesium sulfate, which is not a sedative.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today