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Which of the following options is a correct indication for omeprazole (Prilosec)?

Prevention of peptic ulcers.

Treatment of acute duodenal ulcers caused by

Only to treat heartburn.

Prevention of gastric ulcers caused by NSAIDs.

pylori.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

Choice A rationale

Omeprazole (Prilosec) is a proton pump inhibitor used to prevent peptic ulcers by reducing stomach acid production.

Choice B rationale

Omeprazole is used in combination with antibiotics to treat H. pylori-induced ulcers but not for acute treatment.

Choice C rationale

Omeprazole is not solely used to treat heartburn; it is mainly for preventing and treating peptic and gastric ulcers.

Choice D rationale

Omeprazole is used to prevent gastric ulcers caused by NSAIDs, but its primary indication is for peptic ulcers prevention. .

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Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"B"}

Explanation

The correct answer is Choice B. Choice A rationale: Ondansetron (Zofran) is an antiemetic used to prevent nausea and vomiting. The client denies nausea and vomiting, so this medication is not necessary at this time.

Choice B rationale: Acetaminophen (Tylenol) is appropriate for managing mild pain, which the client reports as 2 out of 10 on the pain scale. This medication effectively alleviates mild pain without significant side effects, making it suitable for the client’s current condition.

Choice C rationale: Hydrocodone/Acetaminophen (Norco) is a combination of an opioid and acetaminophen used for moderate to severe pain. Since the client reports only mild pain (2 out of 10), this stronger medication is not warranted and could cause unnecessary side effects.

Choice D rationale: Melatonin is used to help with sleep. The client does not report any issues with sleep, so administering this medication is not relevant to the current situation.

A. Albuterol. B. Diphenhydramine. C. Certirizine. D. Codeine.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Albuterol is a beta-agonist used for treating asthma, not a first-generation antihistamine.

Choice B rationale

Diphenhydramine is a first-generation antihistamine commonly used for allergic reactions.

Choice C rationale

Certirizine is a second-generation antihistamine, not a first-generation.

Choice D rationale

Codeine is an opioid analgesic and not related to antihistamines.

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Which of the following options is a correct indication for omeprazole (Prilosec)?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"B"}

Explanation

A nurse is providing an in-service about medications that are first-generation antihistamines.Which of the following medications should the nurse include in her in-service?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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