A nurse is caring for a client that is newly diagnosed with seizures and is prescribed lamotrigine.
Which of the following is a serious complication of this medication that requires hospitalization?

Stevens-Johnson syndrome.

Gingival hyperplasia.

Opioid use disorder.

Hypotension.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

Choice A rationale

Stevens-Johnson syndrome is a severe and potentially life-threatening reaction to medications, including lamotrigine. It is characterized by widespread skin necrosis and mucous membrane involvement. Hospitalization is required to manage the symptoms and prevent complications such as infections and organ failure.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Malignant tumors do spread into or invade nearby tissues. This invasive nature allows cancer cells to spread to other parts of the body through the blood or lymph systems.

Choice B rationale

Benign tumors do not spread into or invade nearby tissues. They may grow larger but do not spread to other parts of the body. Benign tumors can be serious if they press on vital structures such as blood vessels or nerves.

Choice C rationale

Benign tumors do not spread and invade nearby tissues. This statement is incorrect and contradicts the true nature of benign tumors.

Choice D rationale

There is a difference between benign and malignant tumors. Malignant tumors are cancerous and invade nearby tissues, whereas benign tumors do not.

A. Insulin. B. Warfarin (Coumadin). C. Heparin. D. Enoxaparin (Lovenox).

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Insulin is a medication used to manage blood sugar levels in clients with diabetes. It is not appropriate for the management of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) as it has no anticoagulant properties.

Choice B rationale

Warfarin (Coumadin) is an oral anticoagulant commonly prescribed for the long-term management of DVT. It is suitable for clients who are unable to self-administer injections, making it a practical option for discharge.

Choice C rationale

Heparin is an anticoagulant that is typically administered via injection or IV. For clients unable to self-inject at home, it is not the best choice for managing DVT after discharge.

Choice D rationale

Enoxaparin (Lovenox) is a low-molecular-weight heparin that is also administered via injection. For clients unable to perform self-injections, this medication would not be the most appropriate option for home management of DVT.

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A nurse is caring for a client that is newly diagnosed with seizures and is prescribed lamotrigine.Which of the following is a serious complication of this medication that requires hospitalization?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is caring for a client who is newly diagnosed with breast cancer.The client asks the nurse, "What is the difference between benign and malignant tumors?" Which of the following statements should the nurse include in her response to the client?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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A nurse is caring for a client that is newly diagnosed with seizures and is prescribed lamotrigine.
Which of the following is a serious complication of this medication that requires hospitalization?