Which of the following symptoms is most characteristic of postpartum blues and typically resolves within two weeks without intervention?

Hallucinations and delusions

Crying easily and frequently, resolving within two weeks

Complete lack of interest in the newborn

Persistent sadness lasting more than two weeks

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

A. Hallucinations and delusions are not characteristic of postpartum blues; they are signs of postpartum psychosis, which is a psychiatric emergency requiring immediate intervention.

B. Crying easily and frequently, resolving within two weeks, is the hallmark symptom of postpartum blues. It typically begins within the first few days after delivery and resolves spontaneously without medical intervention. Other common symptoms include mood swings, irritability, and anxiety.

C. A complete lack of interest in the newborn suggests postpartum depression, a more serious condition that requires intervention and does not resolve spontaneously within two weeks.

D. Persistent sadness lasting more than two weeks is indicative of postpartum depression, not postpartum blues. Postpartum blues are self-limiting and short-lived, whereas postpartum depression requires active treatment and support.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. Physical restraints are sometimes used as a last-resort intervention to prevent immediate harm to the client or others, such as in cases of severe agitation or risk of falls. They are intended to be short-term and temporary, with continuous monitoring and frequent reassessment to minimize harm.

B. Restraints do not improve long-term behavior. In fact, overuse can increase agitation, anxiety, and aggression, and can negatively affect trust and the therapeutic relationship.

C. Physical restraints do not address the underlying causes of agitation and do not provide a permanent solution. They may temporarily control behavior but can worsen emotional distress and cognitive symptoms over time.

D. Restraints have no effect on the neurodegenerative process associated with neurocognitive disorders. Cognitive decline continues regardless of restraint use.

A. They are unable to comprehend speech and cannot form words. B. They understand speech but struggle to articulate full sentences. C. They speak in long, flowing sentences with no meaning D. They speak fluently, but their words include unnecessary and made-up terms.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. "They are unable to comprehend speech and cannot form words." describes global aphasia, not expressive aphasia. In global aphasia, both comprehension and expression are severely impaired. This does not match the typical presentation of expressive aphasia.

B. "They understand speech but struggle to articulate full sentences." is correct. expressive aphasia, also called Broca’s aphasia, is characterized by intact comprehension with difficulty in verbal expression. Clients can understand what is said to them but have trouble forming complete sentences, often speaking in short, fragmented phrases or single words. This is the hallmark presentation.

C. "They speak in long, flowing sentences with no meaning" describes Wernicke’s aphasia, a type of receptive aphasia, where speech is fluent but nonsensical, and comprehension is impaired. This is not consistent with expressive aphasia.

D. "They speak fluently, but their words include unnecessary and made-up terms" also aligns with Wernicke’s or other fluent aphasias involving neologisms. Expressive aphasia typically involves non-fluent, effortful speech rather than fluent but meaningless speech.

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Which of the following symptoms is most characteristic of postpartum blues and typically resolves within two weeks without intervention?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

In the context of neurocognitive disorders, what role does physical restraint play, and what are its implications?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A client with expressive aphasia is most likely to communicate in which way?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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