Which statement is correct concerning the parenteral route of administration?
The bioavailability is usually lower compared to the enteral route.
The onset of action is usually slower compared to the enteral route.
This route of administration cannot be used for unconscious clients.
The medication should be prepared using aseptic techniques.
The Correct Answer is D
A. The bioavailability is usually lower compared to the enteral route: Parenteral administration bypasses the gastrointestinal tract and first-pass metabolism, resulting in higher bioavailability. Drugs administered parenterally typically reach systemic circulation more completely and predictably.
B. The onset of action is usually slower compared to the enteral route: Parenteral routes, such as intravenous or intramuscular injections, generally have a faster onset of action since the medication is delivered directly into the bloodstream or absorbed rapidly from tissues.
C. This route of administration cannot be used for unconscious clients: Parenteral administration is often ideal for unconscious or uncooperative clients because it does not rely on swallowing or gastrointestinal function, allowing rapid and reliable drug delivery.
D. The medication should be prepared using aseptic techniques: Because parenteral drugs are administered through injection, they bypass the body’s natural barriers to infection. Aseptic technique is essential to prevent contamination and minimize the risk of introducing pathogens.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Heart attack: A heart attack, or myocardial infarction, is caused by reduced blood flow to the heart muscle and presents with chest pain radiating to the arm or jaw, not wheezing or rash. The client’s symptoms are allergic in nature, not cardiac.
B. Mild allergy: A mild allergic reaction might include localized rash, itching, or mild swelling. However, the presence of wheezing and chest tightness indicates airway involvement, signifying a more severe, systemic hypersensitivity reaction rather than a mild one.
C. Anaphylaxis: Anaphylaxis is a life-threatening allergic reaction characterized by airway constriction, wheezing, chest tightness, hypotension, and rash. Penicillin is a known trigger, and this combination of symptoms strongly suggests an anaphylactic response requiring immediate emergency treatment with epinephrine.
D. Nephrotoxicity: Nephrotoxicity involves kidney damage, typically indicated by changes in urine output, elevated creatinine, or electrolyte imbalance. The client’s respiratory distress and rash do not correspond with renal toxicity.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Drug absorption may be increased in the elderly client: Aging does not lead to increased drug absorption. In fact, gastrointestinal motility and blood flow often decrease with age, which can delay or slightly reduce absorption rather than enhance it.
B. First-pass metabolism may be increased in the elderly client: First-pass metabolism tends to decrease in older adults because of reduced liver mass and hepatic enzyme activity. Increased first-pass metabolism would actually shorten the drug’s effect, not prolong it.
C. Hepatic metabolism may be reduced in the elderly client: Aging commonly results in diminished liver function and decreased hepatic blood flow, slowing the metabolism of drugs like lorazepam. This reduced metabolism causes the medication to remain active in the body longer, leading to prolonged sedation.
D. Lorazepam does not cross the blood-brain barrier: Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine that readily crosses the blood-brain barrier to exert its sedative and anxiolytic effects. Its prolonged action in this scenario is due to reduced metabolism, not limited CNS penetration.
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