A client takes 400mg of ibuprofen at 8:00am to relieve pain associated with a muscle injury. Ibuprofen has a half-life of approximately 2 hours. Assuming 100% bioavailability, how long will it take for the client's medication level to reduce to 50mg?
8 hours
4 hours
6 hours
2 hours
The Correct Answer is C
A. 8 hours: In 8 hours, four half-lives would have passed. Starting at 400 mg, the drug would decrease to 200 mg (2 hrs), 100 mg (4 hrs), 50 mg (6 hrs), and then 25 mg (8 hrs). At 8 hours, the level would be below 50 mg, not exactly 50 mg.
B. 4 hours: At 4 hours, two half-lives have passed. The concentration would decrease from 400 mg to 200 mg (2 hrs) and then to 100 mg (4 hrs). This is higher than the target concentration of 50 mg.
C. 6 hours: At 6 hours, three half-lives have passed. The drug concentration decreases from 400 mg to 200 mg (2 hrs), then to 100 mg (4 hrs), and finally to 50 mg (6 hrs). This matches the target level exactly.
D. 2 hours: After only one half-life, the concentration decreases from 400 mg to 200 mg. This is still much higher than 50 mg and does not reflect the correct timing for the required reduction.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Antagonist: An antagonist is a drug that binds to a receptor without activating it, thereby blocking other substances from producing their effects. Naloxone works as an opioid receptor antagonist by displacing opioids like morphine or heroin and reversing their respiratory and CNS depressive effects.
B. Anticholinergic: Anticholinergic drugs block the action of acetylcholine in the parasympathetic nervous system. Naloxone does not act on cholinergic receptors; it specifically targets opioid receptors.
C. Agonist: An agonist binds to a receptor and activates it to produce a physiological response. Opioids like morphine are agonists because they stimulate opioid receptors, whereas naloxone blocks them, producing the opposite effect.
D. Mimetic: The term “mimetic” refers to a substance that imitates or enhances the effects of another agent or physiological process. Naloxone does not mimic opioid effects; it inhibits them, preventing activation of opioid receptors.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Definitive dose: A definitive dose refers to a dosage determined after identifying the specific pathogen and its drug sensitivity. It is not related to the initial high dose given to rapidly raise serum drug levels in the body.
B. Prophylactic dose: A prophylactic dose is administered to prevent infection, not to treat an existing one. It is typically lower and given before exposure or surgery, unlike the large therapeutic dose described in this scenario.
C. Maintenance dose: A maintenance dose is a smaller, ongoing dose used to maintain a drug’s effective concentration after the initial therapeutic level has been reached. In this case, the lower doses given from days 2–7 represent the maintenance phase.
D. Loading dose: A loading dose is a higher initial dose given to rapidly achieve a therapeutic drug concentration in the bloodstream, especially when immediate drug action is needed. The high dose given on day 1 fits this definition precisely.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.