While inspecting a pressure injury on an elderly client, the nurse observes new tissue growth around the area, which is pinkish red in color. How would the nurse identify this area in documentation?
Slough
Necrotic tissue
Granulation tissue
Reactive hyperemia
The Correct Answer is C
A. Slough: This refers to inflammatory exudate that is typically yellow, tan, or gray and adheres to the wound bed. It consists of dead white blood cells, fibrin, and cellular debris that must be removed for healing. It does not represent new, healthy tissue growth or the proliferative phase.
B. Necrotic tissue: This term encompasses both slough and eschar, representing non-viable tissue that has lost its blood supply. It is often black, brown, or leathery in appearance and inhibits the formation of a healthy wound base. It is the opposite of the "pinkish red" growth described.
C. Granulation tissue: This tissue is composed of new capillaries and connective tissue, giving it a characteristic beefy red or pink granular appearance. It is a hallmark of the proliferative phase of wound healing, indicating successful oxygenation and nutrient delivery. Its presence confirms the wound is progressing toward closure.
D. Reactive hyperemia: This is a transient increase in blood flow to an area following a period of ischemia, manifesting as non-blanchable redness. It occurs in intact skin after pressure is relieved, rather than appearing as new tissue growth within an existing injury. It is a physiological response, not a structural repair.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. The client is dehydrated: Dehydration typically presents with systemic signs such as poor skin turgor, dry mucous membranes, and tachycardia rather than localized adventitious breath sounds. While it can thicken secretions, it does not directly cause crackles and rhonchi in a specific lung lobe.
B. The client has impaired perfusion: Perfusion issues generally manifest as cyanosis, delayed capillary refill, or cool extremities rather than specific pulmonary congestion. While heart failure can lead to pulmonary edema, the localized nature of the sounds suggests a primary ventilatory or infectious complication.
C. The client has diminished demand for oxygen: A respiratory rate of 28 breaths per minute indicates tachypnea, which is a physiological response to an increased, not decreased, demand for oxygen. The body is attempting to compensate for impaired gas exchange within the congested alveolar spaces.
D. The client has developed hypostatic pneumonia: Prolonged immobility in a comatose state leads to the pooling of secretions in the dependent portions of the lungs. This stasis provides a medium for bacterial growth, resulting in infection, diminished aeration, and characteristic crackles or rhonchi.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. The client has developed a drug tolerance: Chronic exposure to opioid agonists leads to neuroadaptive changes and downregulation of opioid receptors. Over time, higher doses are required to achieve the same level of analgesic effect. This is a common, expected physiological phenomenon in long-term hospice and palliative care.
B. The client is exhibiting drug seeking behavior: This term is often inappropriately used for patients experiencing "pseudo-addiction" due to undertreated pain. In a hospice context, reports of increased pain are clinically assumed to be legitimate. Tolerance or disease progression are the primary drivers of increased medication requirements.
C. The client is displaying an idiosyncratic reaction: This refers to an unpredictable, genetically determined abnormal response to a drug upon first exposure. Since the client has used the medication for 6 months, this is not an idiosyncratic event. The lack of efficacy is a progressive change, not an immediate anomaly.
D. The client is inadequately metabolizing the medication: If the client were not metabolizing the drug, levels would likely rise, potentially leading to toxicity rather than decreased efficacy. While metabolic changes can occur, the standard clinical explanation for reduced opioid effectiveness over months is pharmacological tolerance.
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