With regard to the use of IUDs (intrauterine devices), nurses should be aware that:
IUDs offer protection against sexually transmitted infections (STIs) and human immunodeficiency virus (HIV).
IUDs containing copper (Paragard) can provide an emergency contraception option if inserted within a few days of unprotected intercourse.
IUDs lower a woman's risk for pelvic inflammatory disease.
All IUDs provide protection from pregnancy for eight years.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale
IUDs provide highly effective contraception but offer no protection against sexually transmitted infections (STIs) or human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). They are inserted into the uterus and do not create a physical barrier or contain antimicrobial properties that would prevent the transmission of infectious agents during sexual activity.
Choice B rationale
Copper-containing IUDs (e.g., Paragard) can be used as an effective form of emergency contraception if inserted within five days of unprotected intercourse. The copper ions create a spermicidal and inflammatory reaction in the uterus, preventing fertilization or implantation, thus offering a non-hormonal emergency option.
Choice C rationale
While IUDs themselves do not cause pelvic inflammatory disease (PID), there is a slightly increased risk of PID in the first few weeks after insertion, primarily due to the introduction of bacteria from the vagina or cervix into the sterile uterine cavity. This risk decreases significantly after this initial period.
Choice D rationale
The duration of protection varies significantly among different types of IUDs. For example, the copper IUD (Paragard) can be effective for up to 10 years, while hormonal IUDs (e.g., Mirena, Kyleena) offer protection for 5 to 8 years, depending on the specific device. Not all IUDs provide eight years of protection.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
This statement accurately describes the physiological process of nutrient and gas exchange in the placenta. Diffusion is the primary mechanism, driven by concentration gradients, where oxygen and nutrients move from the maternal blood into the fetal circulation, and waste products move from fetal to maternal blood. The placental barrier, though thin, ensures that maternal and fetal bloodstreams remain separate, preventing direct mixing. This separation is crucial for immunological compatibility.
Choice B rationale
This response demonstrates a correct understanding of placental anatomy and function. The chorionic villi are finger-like projections of the placenta that extend into the maternal decidua. They are rich in fetal capillaries and are the primary site of exchange between maternal and fetal blood. The close proximity allows for efficient transfer of essential substances like oxygen and nutrients, and removal of waste products.
Choice C rationale
This statement is physiologically accurate. The maternal and fetal circulatory systems are distinct; there is no direct mixing of blood. The placenta acts as an interface for exchange. The mother provides oxygen and nutrients, while the fetus returns metabolic waste products, including carbon dioxide and urea, to the maternal circulation for excretion. This maintains separate, yet interdependent, physiological systems.
Choice D rationale
This statement is incorrect and indicates a need for further teaching. The maternal and fetal bloodstreams do not directly mix. The placenta serves as a critical barrier and exchange organ, facilitating the transfer of substances via diffusion, active transport, and facilitated diffusion, but maintaining the separation of the two circulatory systems. Direct blood mixing would lead to severe immunological complications.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Monozygotic twins originate from a single zygote, which forms from the fertilization of one egg by one sperm. This single zygote subsequently divides into two genetically identical embryos. Therefore, the statement "That means there was only one egg" accurately reflects the biological basis of monozygotic twinning, as opposed to dizygotic twins arising from two separate eggs.
Choice B rationale
Monozygotic twins are colloquially known as "identical twins" because they develop from a single fertilized egg that splits. This results in two individuals who share nearly identical genetic material, leading to very similar physical characteristics. The patient's statement "We are having identical twins! How lovely" correctly identifies this key characteristic of monozygotic twinning.
Choice C rationale
Given that monozygotic twins are genetically identical and thus physically very similar, distinguishing between them can often be challenging, especially in infancy. Their shared genetic makeup means they typically have the same blood type, hair color, eye color, and often similar fingerprints, making the question of how to tell them apart a common and valid concern for parents.
Choice D rationale
Monozygotic twins arise from a single zygote, meaning they share the same genetic sex chromosomes (XX for female or XY for male). Therefore, they will always be of the same sex, either both girls or both boys. The statement "It's possible they could both be girls or boys, or one of each" is incorrect because it implies the possibility of different sexes, which only occurs in dizygotic (fraternal) twins.
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